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Basses [DB] Discussion on the instrument: double bass, string bass, contrabass, bass viol, acoustic bass, upright bass, standup bass, bass fiddle, bass violin, doghouse bass, bull fiddle... :)


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  #41  
Old 09-01-2006, 09:39 AM
mje mje is offline
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Join Date: Aug 2002
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ben Rolston
In addition to this is that simple fact that the human ear is better able to hear the frequencies of the other string instruments. Bass notes are harder for the ear to tell pitch on. I might be completely wrong about this though.
True. DRURB will correct me if I'm wrong, but looking at the equal loudness curves at normal hearing levels, there's about a 30dB difference between sensitivity at 40Hz and at 250Hz, which is roughly the fundamental of the bass E and violin G. That's quite a lot. It's so much that if the bass didn't produce a LOT more output than the violin, it wouldn't be heard at all. I wonder if anyone has quantified that?
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  #42  
Old 09-01-2006, 09:53 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mje
True. DRURB will correct me if I'm wrong, but looking at the equal loudness curves at normal hearing levels, there's about a 30dB difference between sensitivity at 40Hz and at 250Hz, which is roughly the fundamental of the bass E and violin G. That's quite a lot. It's so much that if the bass didn't produce a LOT more output than the violin, it wouldn't be heard at all. I wonder if anyone has quantified that?
Well, certainly sensitivity is poorer at very low frequencies. Absolute thresholds (the minimum amounts of energy required to detect given frequencies) do not really belong properly on the equal loudness countours. Notice, of course, that as the overall level increases, the countours flatten out. That is, at high levels, a very broad range of frequencies sounds equally loud. While at lower levels, the very low frequencies will not be judged as loud, they may still be easily heard. Add to that the fact that very low frequencies will mask higher ones (and not vice versa) and you have a rather complex situation.

Gee, even I, at that point would rather just play the instrument as Ken suggests! The proof is in the pudding-- "Hey, can you hear my bass okay?"
  #43  
Old 09-01-2006, 12:19 PM
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Join Date: Jan 2006
Location: Cincinnati, OH
Quote:
Originally Posted by KSB - Ken Smith
One time I was talking to one of the Bassists in the Philly Orchestra and asked about his Bass. He replied it as an old English copy of a d'Salo and then said he doesn't know much about Basses except that when you try a Bass, if it vibrates your 'gut', it's a 'good Bass'. I thought that was a nice simple point of view.

Well said Ken.

If the bass is open and vibrates completely it will make your body vibrate, and that is a good bass.
  #44  
Old 09-01-2006, 12:41 PM
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Join Date: Apr 2006
Location: Brooklyn, NY
Quote:
Originally Posted by Melvin7822
Per the laws of acoustics, your friend is an idiot.
Surely you jest?
Do you mean idiot savant?
And if not, why would you be so moved to make such a comment?
Are you that much of an expert on the laws of acoustics OR that much of a musician to do so?

+1 for all the other more thoughtful replies.
  #45  
Old 09-01-2006, 03:59 PM
lfh lfh is offline
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Originally Posted by DRURB
Notice, of course, that as the overall level increases, the countours flatten out. That is, at high levels, a very broad range of frequencies sounds equally loud. While at lower levels, the very low frequencies will not be judged as loud, they may still be easily heard.
To e.g. reach a loudness level of 80 Phon (i.e. "normal hearing levels" as assumed by mje) requires about 20 dB higher acoustical output at 50 Hz than at 500 Hz, so mje certainly has a valid point IMHO (disregarding the "it wouldn't be heard at all"-part).

BTW, are you aware of any studies of pitch discrimination limits where actual harmonic series were used, as opposed to merely using sinusoidals? (I would expect quite different results for a 40 Hz sine and a 40 Hz saw tooth wave.)

Last edited by lfh : 09-01-2006 at 04:17 PM.
  #46  
Old 09-01-2006, 06:39 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by lfh
To e.g. reach a loudness level of 80 Phon (i.e. "normal hearing levels" as assumed by mje) requires about 20 dB higher acoustical output at 50 Hz than at 500 Hz, so mje certainly has a valid point IMHO (disregarding the "it wouldn't be heard at all"-part).

BTW, are you aware of any studies of pitch discrimination limits where actual harmonic series were used, as opposed to merely using sinusoidals? (I would expect quite different results for a 40 Hz sine and a 40 Hz saw tooth wave.)

Yes, mje's point was quite valid. Notice that in my post I mentioned the contours flattening at high levels. There is a raft of the type of studies you mention. Those would take us way off any TB topic and way into esoteric geek land (where I live). If you are interested in finding them, they are largely found in the Journal of the Acoustical Society of America, the premiere journal for psychoacoustics since 1929.
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