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  #1  
Old 01-18-2007, 01:46 PM
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Question Playing Octaves

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Recently began playing a lot of funkier songs, mostly jamiroquai!

These songs are mostly octaves and ive seen people play these using different fingering.
I use my 3rd finger to player the higher note in the octave but have seen a lot of people use there 4th.

Is there a reason to use the 4th instead of the 3rd?
  #2  
Old 01-18-2007, 01:55 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Amitio View Post
Recently began playing a lot of funkier songs, mostly jamiroquai!

These songs are mostly octaves and ive seen people play these using different fingering.
I use my 3rd finger to player the higher note in the octave but have seen a lot of people use there 4th.

Is there a reason to use the 4th instead of the 3rd?
yeah. It frees up your first finger, which is a good strong finger with a lot of reach. Also if you're playing funk, a lot of that stretch goes in the direction of LOW. But whatever works for you. There's no law against anything you do on the bass as long as you do it funky.
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  #3  
Old 01-18-2007, 02:00 PM
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It's about comfort and being placing your fingers in a position where they can easily flow to the next step. I recommend practicing octave in as many positions as you can think of, including open strings.
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  #4  
Old 01-18-2007, 02:03 PM
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The standard hand position for playing major and Dominant chords involves the root being played with the middle finger, the third being played with the index finger, and the 5th and octave being played with the pinky
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Old 01-18-2007, 02:06 PM
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Is there a reason to use the 4th instead of the 3rd?
It's easier.
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  #6  
Old 01-18-2007, 02:07 PM
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I use my pinky to make it easier to reach the octave, and free up my middle two fingers for upcoming notes. When you're playing 50 songs in a night, it's wise to conserve hand strength as much as possible.
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  #7  
Old 01-18-2007, 02:36 PM
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If you know you are only going to be playing the root and octive... sure, go ahead and use your 4th finger...

butr if you know you are going to be playing a major third.. used 2nd / 4th for the root and octive and your first for the third....
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  #8  
Old 01-18-2007, 03:34 PM
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Thanks for your help!

Ive been using my third finger to play them so its easier than my fourth, but im sure it wont take too long to break the habit!
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Old 01-18-2007, 04:01 PM
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Originally Posted by guy n. cognito View Post
I use my pinky to make it easier to reach the octave
+1

especially if you're playing a bass with less frets (ie more distance between each fret) like my fender jazz. it can be a reach in first position to get some of those octaves.

to the OP, i'm a big jamiroquai fan myself, keep on funkin' to those jams
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Old 01-18-2007, 06:51 PM
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especially if you're playing a bass with less frets (ie more distance between each fret) like my fender jazz.
Having less frets does not equal more distance between frets. That is scale length.
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Old 01-18-2007, 08:57 PM
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Originally Posted by MichaelScott View Post
Having less frets does not equal more distance between frets. That is scale length.
so take two 34" scale basses, one has 24 frets, one has 21. The one with 21 will have more distance between the frets since there's less frets for a larger distance.
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Old 01-18-2007, 09:16 PM
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I use thumb and index finger to pluck octaves.
Or is this about the fretting hand?
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  #13  
Old 01-18-2007, 09:21 PM
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Originally Posted by All_¥our_Bass View Post
I use thumb and index finger to pluck octaves.
Or is this about the fretting hand?
It's about the fretting hand.
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Old 01-18-2007, 09:32 PM
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Originally Posted by markjazzbassist View Post
so take two 34" scale basses, one has 24 frets, one has 21. The one with 21 will have more distance between the frets since there's less frets for a larger distance.
No.

In your example the bass with the 24 frets will have a longer fingerboard- compensating for the extra 3 frets. The distance between frets is exactly the same on all basses that have a 34" scale.
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Old 01-18-2007, 09:34 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by markjazzbassist View Post
so take two 34" scale basses, one has 24 frets, one has 21. The one with 21 will have more distance between the frets since there's less frets for a larger distance.
Two basses of the same scale length are supposed to have the same exact distance between the frets. The thing is, extra frets are added towards the bridge (the fingerboard is extended in that direction), so the body must have a deeper cutaway to reach them. That's why some players don't like to slap 24-fret basses since the right hand must be moved more towards the bridge in order to slap/pop the strings at the very end of the fingerboard. Here are two 34" scale basses, one with 20 frets and a fretless with 36 "frets":



The distance between frets in both basses is supposed to be the same.
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  #16  
Old 01-18-2007, 09:52 PM
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Originally Posted by Alvaro Martín Gómez A. View Post
Two basses of the same scale length are supposed to have the exact distance between the frets. The thing is, extra frets are added towards the bridge (the fingerboard is extended in that direction), so the body must have a deeper cutaway to reach them. That's why some players don't like to slap 24-fret basses since the right hand must be moved more towards the bridge in order to slap/pop the strings at the very end of the fingerboard. Here are two 34" scale basses, one with 20 frets and a fretless with 36 "frets"
wow, didn't know that. sorry about that. thanks for the explanation.
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