I IV progression sounds awesome everytime!!

[cire113]

Why WHY WHy does the I IV chord progression groove like no other every time!!! its amazing

Ive only been playing bass about 2 years and i freaking love this progression.... there are so many rhythmic variations to it so much you can do..

its just ultimate groove every time....


god dam i love I IV


does it ever get old?

[smithal3]

....yeah it does


It grooves because that's all you can do with this progression, it has no musical creativity and doesn't take you on an "adventure" or "trip." No dissonance or resolution.

[MadMan118]

Its the first two chords of a 12 bar blues progression which included I IV and V chords. And 4'ths sound great on bass too.

[Jim Carr]

Originally Posted by cire113

Why WHY WHy does the I IV chord progression groove like no other every time!!! its amazing

Ive only been playing bass about 2 years and i freaking love this progression.... there are so many rhythmic variations to it so much you can do..

its just ultimate groove every time....

Please check "I'll Take You There" by the Staple Singers. Aw heck,
I'll take you there, it's massive!

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zXvKRZRofDE

I IV that says so so much!

[cire113]

^^^^^


heck yeah thats what im talking about!!!


anyone else know any other cool I IV songs with cool rhythms

[HaVIC5]

Originally Posted by smithal3

....yeah it does


It grooves because that's all you can do with this progression, it has no musical creativity and doesn't take you on an "adventure" or "trip." No dissonance or resolution.

No musical creativity? No dissonance or resolution? Bold claims to make about a chord progression. Explain.

[mcm]

No matter what you do or who you are or how talented you are, you will never get away from the 1,4,5 chords and progressions. They are implanted in our brains. Those keys are very similar to each other which make them pleasing to the ear.

[MalcolmAmos]

The V-I cadence is needed for closure. You can do that with the IV-I but it's just not the same.

V wants to move to the tonic I.
IV wants to move to the dominant V or viidim.

If we let them do what they like it seems to work out for the best.

[Luke19Boarder]

Originally Posted by smithal3

....yeah it does


It grooves because that's all you can do with this progression, it has no musical creativity and doesn't take you on an "adventure" or "trip." No dissonance or resolution.

now that's just silly. sure you can move around within a chord progression to include dissonance and creativity!

[warnergt]

Originally Posted by mcm

No matter what you do or who you are or how talented you are, you will never get away from the 1,4,5 chords and progressions. They are implanted in our brains. Those keys are very similar to each other which make them pleasing to the ear.

+1 I agree. From what I've read, this actually goes back to the likes of
Bach and Beethoven. They more-or-less defined Western music with
some combination of 1,4 and 5 in there somewhere. You can find it in
an extremely high percentage of our music. If you don't find the 1-4-5,
odds are that it is some non-Western music (e.g. asian, middle-eastern,
Nickelback, etc.). (OK, just kidding on the Nickelback part. )

By the way, the frequency of the 5th is 50% higher than the 1st.
This might be some subliminal reason why the two go together.
And the 1st is actually the 5th of the 4th (but down an octave).
In other words:
5th is 150% of a 1st.
1st is 75% of a 4th (i.e. 150% / 2).

[warnergt]

While the I-IV-V is very powerful, sounds great and has countless ways of
being used, you're gonna want to diversify a bit. You need to expand
your repertoire to give yourself a bigger arsenal of tools.

As a next step, I recommend going to the I-vi-ii-V (often used
as I-vi-IV-V). This is the so-called ice-cream change. Like the I-IV-V,
it too has a very natural, likable sound. You could make a whole
tune out of it.

[Munjibunga]

Originally Posted by warnergt

And the 1st is actually the 5th of the 4th (but down an octave).
In other words:
5th is 150% of a 1st.
1st is 75% of a 4th (i.e. 150% / 2).

I've been to the Firth of Forth, buth never the Fith of Forth.

[MNAirHead]

Originally Posted by smithal3

....yeah it does


It grooves because that's all you can do with this progression, it has no musical creativity and doesn't take you on an "adventure" or "trip." No dissonance or resolution.

Funny thing.. the more I learn dissonant and obscure charts.. the more the 1 and 4 pop up.

Only time they don't are on boring and talentless riff tunes.

[BD Bass]

[quote=cire113;7951132]Why WHY WHy does the I IV chord progression groove like no other every time!!! its amazing

So............how do you do this,maybe I'm lost




OK.I found some of it......now I just need to use it more often