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Originally Posted by yyz Hey everybody, I just got a theory book and according to one of the examples in the book an F and a B are a perfect 4th. I've been playing music all my life and if I'm correct, I think that's wrong. That would be a diminished 5th, right? Could someone please elaborate? Thanks a lot. |
It wouldn't be a diminished fifth. In this case it would be an augmented fourth. Your ear hears them the same, but in terms of notation they are different.
Why? The interval from F to B (provided they are in the same octave) is always some sort of fourth. Perfect, diminished, augmented, etc., - always a fourth. F to C would be a fifth.
But from what you describe it just sounds like a typo.