Playing arpeggios in different inversions.

[Not Mark Westlake]

Hi there,
I was hoping one of you good people could help me - for some music theory work, I have to make a recording of me playing various chord arpeggios in different inversions. For example, GMaj7.

When I play the example, is it the 'done thing' to play the second octave?

e.g. (sorry for tab, just easier...)

- - - - - - - - -
- - - - - - - 4 -
- - - 2 - 5 - - -
- 3 - - - - - - -

That covers the G (I), the B (III), the D (V), and the F# (VII), so if I'm playing that example, should I put the additional G on the D-string to complete the top of the voicing? This is bearing in mind that afterwards I have to play all the inversions.

To continue, am I right to play the inversions like the following?

- - - - - - -
- - - - 4 - 5
2 - 5 - - - -
- - - - - - -
First inversion GMaj7 arp.

- - - - - - 4
- - 4 - 5 - -
5 - - - - - -
- - - - - - -
Second inversion " " " " " " " ".

- - - - 4 - 7
4 - 5 - - - -
- - - - - - -
- - - - - - -
Third inversion " " " " " " " ".

So would that be correct? For the recording, I'm going up and then down, but it's a hell of a lot easier transcribing like that

So yeah, am I correct in playing it as I've written there?

Thanks for any help,

Mark.

[Eli M.]

For the arpeggio in root position, I wouln't play the top G, just play G-B-D-F#. This is because, when you're inverting the chord, you're basically taking the bottom note and bringing it an octave up. So the top G in root position would be redundant.

You other inversions are correct.