Quiz me for my music theory class

[DocBop]

Originally Posted by santucci218

thats umm...the "claypool interval"

augmented 4th?

Sorry been busy all day. C to F# is a augmented 4th also called a tritone. It is also the interval that gives a dominant chord it's personality.

Why is it called a tritone?

[!Rob!]

C to F# is an augmented 4th, RIGHT!

what is it called when it's C to Gb?

(cdefg) obviously not a 4th right?

[HaVIC5]

Originally Posted by !Rob!

C to F# is an augmented 4th, RIGHT!

what is it called when it's C to Gb?

(cdefg) obviously not a 4th right?

Yeah, its called a diminished 5th. When you're dealing with the perfect intervals of the unison, 4, 5 and octave, flattening it a semitone makes it a diminished interval and sharpening it makes it an augmented inteval.

With this in mind, what would you call the distance between B and Fb? (hint, its not a perfect fourth!)

[Ferscrackle55]

Originally Posted by PocketGroove82

Here is one for ya:

What is the inversion of a Major4th?

A Major 4th?

Do you mean a Perfect fourth?

Major fourth isn't a theory term.

The inversion would be a perfect fifth, which is why it cannot be a major fourth.

If it were a Major 4th, the inversion would have to be a minor 5th, which is another term that doesn't exist.

I suppose technically a minor 5th could be considered enharmonic to a diminished 6th, but it would never be referred to as a minor 5th.

[HaVIC5]

I suppose technically a minor 5th could be considered enharmonic to a diminished 6th, but it would never be referred to as a minor 5th.

How do you figure that? A diminished sixth would be enharmonic to a perfect fifth.

[mutedeity]

On perfect 4ths and 5ths, it is the general paradigm that you can't call the 4th and 5th degree of the Major scale and thier enharmonic counterparts a Major 4th or 5th, respectively. Technically though there are a few things to consider. Firstly that there is a discrepency of 2 cents between a just intonation 5th (3:2) and an equal temperament 5th. This makes one or the other an almost perfect 5th, and even though this is a small and usually unrecognisable difference it is a difference all the same. Since the ratio of 3:2 is the one based on the Pythagorean division, I would say that the just intonation ratio is the perfect 5th. So the interval of 3 and 1/2 tones we play is actually more like an almost perfect 5th. Since we name every other interval in relation to the major scale anyway, and the same reasoning goes for the 4th, I would find it hard to see how it could be completely incorrect to say that either of these intervals can be called major 4th or major 5th. That is not to say that I would tell anyone to write either as such on their theory paper, since the general paradigm is such that this would be marked as incorrect. Just something to think about.

[mutedeity]

Originally Posted by HaVIC5

How do you figure that? A diminished sixth would be enharmonic to a perfect fifth.

Actually a diminshed 6th is enharmonic to an augmented 5th

[HaVIC5]

Originally Posted by mutedeity

Actually a diminshed 6th is enharmonic to an augmented 5th

No, a minor sixth is enharmonic to an augmented 5th, thus the whole dom7(b13)/+7 equivelency. But I see your whole point with the just intonation thing, I just have always thought in equal temperment.

[mutedeity]

You are right, my bad

[santucci218]

this should be a sticky thread. like, the person below you answers a music theory question you ask. that would be good stuff.

[stedtale]

subscribed.