Can volume lvl make active = passive?
So I hope this question isn't too dumb but can using the volume knob on my HPF-Pre calm the signal down on my G&L M-2000 enough to make it equivalent to a passive bass? I'm not sure if it's just a matter of lowering the volume level or if there is more to it. If it is that simple any rough ideas on how much to cut to get an equivalent level to a typical passive bass?
First off, the main difference in outputted signal between passive and active instruments is typically the load it likes to see. Passive (unbuffered) instruments typically need to see an input load somewhere north of 500k ohms to avoid "loading" of the pickups, which generally results in some sort of "sucking" of tone. This is why active DIs were invented, and why people complain of "tone-suck" over long cable runs and through long chains of pedals with passive instruments.
Active instruments are buffered by their preamps, which mostly avoids the problems listed above with passives.
The difference you speak of is output voltage, which generally is higher in active instruments, but not always. When you bring preamp design, pup config, series/parallel, and other variables into play, the difference can be non-existant.
And of course, cutting your volume knob will bring down the voltage. If you're worried about overloading your preamp, use whatever pad functionality is built into your amp and listen for clipping.
Edit because i'm not an electronics expert and some of this explanation may be misguided. Either way, don't worry about it too much. Just set your gain and go.
In case that went over your head, the short answer is play away.
It's not totally over my head and thanks for the explanation. I ask because I have been messing with a PreSonus TubePre V2 and the manual states that I should use a passive bass. There is no pad on the TubePre that I can find. I was hoping that a volume cut with the HPF-Pre would do the trick and it sounds like your answer implies it will. Thanks again.
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