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Question about sound

Discussion in 'Basses [BG]' started by felixxx, Mar 23, 2014.


  1. For a start, I am no real bass player, I am playing purely for my own enjoyment. I like to learn new things and bass is one of them.
    There is, however, one thing I don't completely understand and I was hoping that collective wisdom here can help me.
    I recently bought lovely used Lakland 55-02 and I posted it here in several threads. In addition, I read pretty much every single thread here and on other sites about this particular model.
    Besides overall positive comments about this bass, quite a few people said that, while getting more or less good P and J tone, it can't quite get MM tone.
    I also noticed similar comments about many other basses, like G&L L2000. There were even numerous threads about P/J basses not sounding like a P bass.
    My question is, why is it important that bass should sound like some other basses? My Lakland sounds just perfect with everything flat, and IMO better that anything else I have tried. It can fit any type of music on its own. So, why would I want it to sound like something that it's not?
    I really would like to know this, because it's been bothering me for awhile.
     
  2. Really, don't let it bother you.

    The forum has a strong Fender bias, which reflects the position of a Fender in the market. Thus, if folk talk of P or J tone they are referring to Fenders and the assumption is that if another manufacturer uses the same pickups they will be after the same tone. This may well be false, but that's the assumption. Secondly pickup placement is often an issue with PJ basses and the wisdom here is to make sure the P is in the right place and that you have a pickup selector switch to be able to isolate the pickups. All that because folk want to get the P or J bridge sound. Of course, if you don't then it doesn't matter!

    Peace
    Davo
     
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  4. darrenmt

    darrenmt

    Dec 15, 2004
    Australia
    If u feel it sounds good to your ears than it shouldn't matter since it is really subjective. It's the usual arguments of whether a multi pickup bass being able to emulate various others since it was designed to do so.

    I have a 55-94 and love it. It sounds good all flat with all coils on. If required, I feel i can eq to emulate a P, 60s/70s J and MM as well. The degree of emulation again is subjective. One person may think mock meat tastes like real meat while another may think it's nothing like it.

    All that matters is the satisfaction you derive from your tone and truly knowing how well it works in that musical context.
     
  5. well...some people buy a bass with multiple pup's for it's ability to be versatile..
    sometimes you need a p bass sound like when playing motown or country and sometimes you need a jazz bass sound when playing old funk or old school rock etc.
    When playing live you may have to do all those styles in one set and having one bass that covers them all is a very convenient way to do it without changing basses all the time..(some people want to get the classic tones for a particular genre of music)
    It's also a more economical way to do it. if you can only afford one bass,you may as have one that can cover a lot of ground..
     
  6. darrenmt

    darrenmt

    Dec 15, 2004
    Australia

    +1
     
  7. Well, I guess that's the part of the question. Do you really need P bass for Motown, or J for funk?
    I have heard people using other basses and still sounding great.
     
  8. darrenmt

    darrenmt

    Dec 15, 2004
    Australia

    Of course u can use whichever you like. It's not set in stone or anything. But emulation adds to the nostalgia and feel to the piece. There are cases where certain tones sit better in the mix than others.
     
  9. Thanks. I can agree with everything you said here.:)
     



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