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Tone Hammer to Passive or Active Preamp Input?

Discussion in 'Amps [BG]' started by Rev. Cornelius, Apr 9, 2014.


  1. Rev. Cornelius

    Rev. Cornelius Supporting Member

    Joined:
    Jan 30, 2007
    Location:
    Boston, MA
    Here's a question.....and I don't know if there is any one correct answer.

    I come out of either a passive P or J OR an active (AC Filter Pre) fretless J into a Demeter Compulator to the TH DI (low gain AGS on) to a Demeter HBP-1 Pre to a QSC PLX amp.

    I usually switch the active/passive input on the HBP-1 depending on which bass, active or passive. Does everyone do this, no one do this, some do this??

    Thanks,

    Rev. C
     
  2. KJung

    KJung

    Joined:
    Apr 9, 2005
    Location:
    Wisconsin and Upper Michigan
    First, you will do no harm either way.

    Given that the TH preamp pedal has a 'master volume', you would most likely want to use the non-padded (sometimes incorrectly labeled as 'passive') input to your amp. Just set the master volume on the TH for unity gain with your bass, and all is well!

    There is absolutely no correlation between 'active and passive' instruments (i.e., those with on-board preamps and those without) and the strength of the output of the instrument. So, absolutely no reason to use the different inputs or settings. Always use the non-padded or 'passive' input UNLESS you are getting unwanted distortion at the input level with the input gain set very low.
     
  3. KJung

    KJung

    Joined:
    Apr 9, 2005
    Location:
    Wisconsin and Upper Michigan
    One thing that is unique about your situation is that, for some unknown reason, the Demeter preamps don't have an input gain level setting (I believe you have to take the top off and adjust an internal pad). Makes little sense to me, but it is what it is.

    If your instruments are VERY different in output, and your active instrument doesn't have an internal trim control to adjust the output of the preamp (another thing that should be legislated to be required:D), then things could get a bit complicated.

    So, here is the question. When you have everything optimally set for one bass, does your volume level significantly increase or decrease with the other bass, with everything else the same?
     

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