I recently purchased a 1980 Fender P-bass. It has all of the original parts, but I replaced the bridge with a BadAssII. My question is, how different will my bass sound with a Seymour Duncan SPB-1 (vintage) compared to the original 1980 Fender p/up (don't ask me what it is). BTW, I play with Rotosound Jazz Flats. Any replies will be greatly appreciated!!!!