I currently have an Ibanez SR400. I play in a band with it and it sounds good enough to most. It's my "first bass". I've always wanted to get my hands on a nice Fender though and the opportunity has presented itself. I want to make sure I'm doing the right thing. My Ibanez has a P and a J pickup, a three band eq and a 9V active pre-amp for the passive pickups. The Fender I have an opportunity to buy is a 2000 American Series P-Bass (Not the delux) As most of you know, it has just the passive P pickup with one volume and one tone control. Lining them up side by side, the Ibanez seems to be "feature rich" while the Fender seems very basic. I know the Fender is a better bass, but why exactly? If I can get my hands on the Fender and my Ibanez at the same time and play them right after the other on the same amp will the sound difference and playability be what tells the story? My assumption is that the Fender is simply good enough not to need all the bells and whistles that the Ibanez has. I totally want the Fender but want to feel like I really "traded up". Thanks!