I have a late 2000's, MIJ Fender Jaguar bass (3-tone burst) with the stock pick-ups in it. I've noticed that when both of the pick-ups are activated (in either series or parallel mode) there doesn't seem to be any 60 cycle hum, though there definitely is when only one pickup is engaged. This got me wondering: are the pick-ups in this bass reverse-wound? It would explain the lack of noise, certainly. Lately I've been thinking of trying a new set of pick-ups in this bass (maybe some Lindy Fralins?), and if the stock pickups are reverse-wound, I'd like to make sure that any replacements are too. Does anybody know the answer to this question? I've search around, but I can't seem to find any info. on this.