So I've got two Fender Jazz basses of similar model and vintage (mid-90's MIM), one with frets and one without. Both are, to the best of my knowledge, stock in every respect. Both are strung with flats, although the fretless has a lighter gauge and this is the only known difference in setup aside from the fret situation. In side by side comparison using the same amp, the fretted model sounds thick and rich and buttery smooth. The fretless version seems to be pushing MUCH more power, easily popping the speaker on my RB6 Laney as each note sounds. Anyone have input on this?