Psst... Ready to join TalkBass and start posting, make new friends, sell your gear, and more?  Register your free account in 30 seconds.

Jazz with flats vs. P with flats - what's the sound difference?

Discussion in 'Basses [BG]' started by fourstringbliss, Aug 21, 2005.


  1. I know that a P doesn't sound like a J, but with flats what's the sound difference?

    Oh, and let me get the obvious response that someone's going to give me:
    "A Jazz with flats will sound like a Jazz with flats, and the P with flats will sound like a P with flats."

    Okay, I understand that, but let's get more specific please.

    Also, I have a Jazz with a J-Retro and Fender flats - is there a way I can fiddle with the knobs and get the neck pup to sound like a P?
     
  2. No.
     
  3. RHFusillo

    RHFusillo Supporting Member

    Mar 20, 2000
    Phoenix, AZ
    For the most part, I agree with Marcusalan. You can get a little bit close to a P sound by favoring the neck pickup, boosing the bass and cutting the upper mids.
     
  4. What exactly is a j-retro? sorry i don't know a real lot.
     
  5. embellisher

    embellisher Holy Ghost filled Bass Player Staff Member Supporting Member

    It is a drop in preamp for a Fender Jazz bass and similar copies.
     
  6. thanks! now i dont feel as dumb!
     
  7. It's an excellent preamp that gives me complete control over the sound of my Jazz Bass and it sounds great (IMHO). I only wish I had the J-Retro deluxe which gives you tone control when in passive mode.