Is there a problem with running just an active bass through a poweramp for one rehearsal besides the obvious lack of "tone"? The reason I'm asking is I'm dying to rehearse tonight and the preamp I've bought won't arrive till tues. and I've already sold my old one.
An active pickup such as the EMG puts out 1.0 Vrms which should be sufficient to drive most power amps. Dunno if there are any other complications, but the voltage portion should not be a problem.
I did an entire gig once with an MTD 535 straight into a Raven Labs MDB-1 mixer/buffer and then into a Mackie 1400 power amp. I set the Raven Labs so that there was no added gain, and much to my surprise I found that the tone was great and the on-board eq on the MTD gave me all I needed (and more) in terms of tone control. Plenty of volume. I've considered trying it with my current Lakland, but intentionally this time...not just because I blew a preamp tube and didn't have a spare.
Ok, I've tried it and I'm not getting near the volume I was when I ran it with a preamp. What's the deal???
Hey bliss, its a mackie 1400i and I'm using my '97 Thumb N/T with the 3band and mec's straight in. Any ideas?
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