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Matching Strings to Basses

Discussion in 'Strings [BG]' started by ebe9, Apr 12, 2006.


  1. ebe9

    ebe9

    Feb 26, 2006
    South Africa
    I heard the following theory today.

    "Bass manufacturers such as warwick and fender ship their basses with their own strings (i.e. warwick basses ship with warwick strings) as the strings have been specially design to match up best with their basses"

    In essence, "warwick/fender etc. basses sound best with warwick/fender etc. strings because they have been made for them specifically" i.e. you get the "warwick/fender" tone best when using the associated strings.

    I was wondering how true this would be as it does sound like a viable theory.

    (Obviously everyone has different tastes when it comes to strings)
     
  2. My opinion is that this theory is, at least in the vast majority of cases, nonsense.

    In the first place, tastes in tone being as various as they are, you can't possibly design any set of strings to sound just plain "better" for a given bass across the board. What I like, you may think sucks.

    In the second place, what makes more sense to me is that bass manufacturers use their own strings (a) because they get them cheaper and (b) because they want to reinforce the association of string with instrument so that they sell more strings. They want some of the string market as well as the bass market, it's that simple. Think about it: you're Fender, and you make basses, and you make strings (or have them made for you). Do you spend a few dollars and put your own strings on, or do you spend twice or three times the money and put another company's strings on? And if you don't even put your own strings on your own bass, how are you going to sell customers on your strings?

    It's just marketing claptrap IMO, designed to sell strings.
     

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