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ok, something has been bugging me

Discussion in 'Off Topic [BG]' started by The Antipop, May 31, 2005.

  1. and I can't find it online

    When did murder become illegal?
  2. WHaAAAAAA !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! ILLEGAL?!?!?!?!?!?!?!?!?!
  3. Murder has always been one of societies most unacceptable activities, so its 'being wrong' probably predates formal law-making.

    If you haven't already looked there, your 1776 constitution would be where I would look to find the first instance of it being codified.
  4. I was looking more towards someone being punished from such a thing. Must have been long before that
  5. kserg


    Feb 20, 2004
    San Jose, CA
    Do you mean like... lynching? like when lynching became illegal?
  6. I mean when causing the death of someone would bring punishement to you
  7. gilbert46


    Sep 21, 2004
    Sacramento, CA
    Im going to assume this is someone trolling but its 12:30 and i have nothing better to do then quote from my history textbooks.

    The first recorded document of laws were from mesopotamia and were called the "Law Code of Hammurabi". They date back to 2800BC, or very roughly 5000 years ago.

    153. If the wife of one man on account of another man has their mates (her husband and the other man's wife) murdered, both of them shall be impaled.

    Id say murder has been illegal since the existance of humanity. even if it wasnt outlawed, there was someone to retaliate, therefor by your requirements, its punished.

  8. It has honestly been bugging me, google seemed to be no help. I got alot of recent murder things.
    Thank you for your quote

    it is almost 4am here... I have been looking since roughly 2
  9. MJ5150

    MJ5150 Moderator Staff Member Supporting Member

    Apr 12, 2001
    Olympia, WA
    If you are a Bible guy, and believe life started in Genesis, then the punishment of Cain for killing Abel is where it all started. That was 3500 years ago.

  10. Marlat


    Sep 17, 2002
    London UK
    Murder is a legal term for a specific act - perhaps if you google killing it may be more useful.
  11. gilbert46


    Sep 21, 2004
    Sacramento, CA

    Dang, this guy beat me by like 25 thousand years ;)
  12. kserg


    Feb 20, 2004
    San Jose, CA
    Then always... since the caveman days...

    There are good evidence that even before days of Egypt and whole Mesopotamian cultures there has been punishment for death... Of course it was not always done right... In some cultures if one was to kill someone’s son then punishment would be that his son would be killed as well... or the victim’s family was to take whatever they wanted... if it was daughter that was killed I think in Mesopotamia killer had to give family stuff...

    In a lot of cases a murder of someone who is not house hold leader was consider as "damage". We are talking about cultures that "more sons i have more working hands i have... more food i can grow" so a murder of a son would consider to be bad because its less helping hands... so yeah... idea is different outcome is about the same.

    Later on the concept that a son is not responsible for father came to play…

    Duals are however slightly different because you can call it self defense for both of them… so I think there is special rules for that because technically its not a murder…
  13. MJ5150

    MJ5150 Moderator Staff Member Supporting Member

    Apr 12, 2001
    Olympia, WA
    The late hour at which I am awake caused a momentary lapse of reason. It actually was about 6000 years ago. That is, if you believe in the Bible and such.

  14. Tash


    Feb 13, 2005
    Bel Air Maryland
    So Murder was legal in England back then? I'm pretty sure Brits had laws against killing people.

    FYI the constitution was written in 1787. 1776 was the year the US colonies declared independence from England.

    Also our Constituion isn't a code of criminal law, its instead of a charter for how the government is SUPPOSED to work.

    The closest thing to a ban on Murder would probably be Amendment V which contains the "nor be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law" provision.

    Not really the same thing.
  15. karrot-x

    karrot-x Inactive

    Feb 21, 2004
    Omicron Persei 8
    Wasn't "eye for an eye" the first written law?
  16. Ehh, I don't know know about the premise of this question. Not sure what to say.

    And yes, as Tash pointed out, the US constitution is a guideline for the government, not a set of laws for citizens.
  17. I assumed that there was a connection between your constitution and your laws, and my answer was intended to be a pointer, nothing more. As you have indicated, I am not expert in US law.

    With regard to your first comment about UK law, we do not have a written constitution, so as I understand our legal system, it is a mixture of 'common law' which was the custom and practice of people through history, and drafted laws, brought in by parliament, or written by committees under the authority of parliament. So killing someone would have been a breech of common law long before any regulations were written about it.
  18. Bob Clayton

    Bob Clayton My P doesn’t have flats or tort Staff Member Supporting Member

    Aug 14, 2001
    Philly Suburbs
    i belive the first written laws would be the ten commandments . or atleastd the first known laws anyway. and of course in there, thou shall not kill.
  19. karrot-x

    karrot-x Inactive

    Feb 21, 2004
    Omicron Persei 8
    Doesn't eye for an eye predate the ten commandments?
  20. the code of hamurabi(or somethin' similar)
    and yes, it is the first known written law. I believe it was before egypt, which had been around for some time before the whole Moses thing.

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