The situation: If I have (which I do) a passive bass do I more likely want an active DI box? And if I had (which I don't) an active bass would I want a passive DI box? Based on previous research it seems like the answer to both questions is "yes". That being said, the other day I borrowed a Countryman (active) to try something at home on a $5 tape deck and it worked very well. So I went to my local store to buy a Countryman for myself and the salesman (who "looks after me" and who I've dealt with for a long time) refused to order me the Countryman because he "knew" I would like the Radial JDI (which he had in stock) better. He said if I didn't like it better then I could swap it in for full price towards the Countryman. I was about to take it (even though it's like $75 more than the Countryman) when I remembered the active/passive "issue". He only had the JDI in stock which is Radial's passive box. And he said, "passive bass needs passive DI box." But even though that sounds logical, it seemed like I've read otherwise. So I backed off. The way I've heard the active/passive issue described (as it relates to DIs) is that an active DI should be paired with a passive bass because the active DI is more capable of dealing with the very high impedance of passive P/Us. And because the impedance of active basses already is much lower, they do better paired with passive DIs which are "expecting" the already lower impedance. Something like that, right?? I welcome all clarification because I don't want to buy the wrong one as it relates to the active/passive issue. Again, I have a passive bass (old Fender). Also, the JDV (which is Radial's active box) is like another $100 vs. their JDI (passive) which is already a lot more than the Countryman.