Ok, I was having a...discussion with someone about this and I honestly am a bit confused. We were talking about singers and how it's usually harder for women to control their pitch when they sing down low. My friend rationalized that it was because in the lower pitch range, there aren't as many hz inbetween each note, so you have to be more precise. There isn't as much room for error - and that was the reason why. (Leaving out the natural range of gender specific vocal cords for the purpose of the argument) If you think about it in terms of Hz = pitch: Take one note, say an A and then go an octave above that to the next A. The hz value should be double, correct? If A=440, then the next A would be 880, right? That's a difference of 440 hz. Now take a lower note, with a frequency of 120hz. Double that to get an octave higher and you have 240hz. That's a difference of 120hz. So in terms of hz there is a greater distance between higher notes than lower notes. But when I think of it in terms of basses (I'm a bassist, my friend is a sound engineer ) I know that there's a greater distance between the lower frets of a bass whereas the higher frets are spaced closer together. Like on a fretless bass, it's much harder to intonate up higher on the fretboard because a little difference in position can be a whole other note, where down lower on the fretboard if you're a little bit off it's still pretty close. So I'm confused. Does that value of 1hz change as you add them together, or am I missing something else here?