I have a buddy who has a high-end guitar tube amp - he was going to use with his new bass. His other friend told him to get a bass amp because he would blow his guitar amp's speakers with the bass. This doesn't make any sense to me - particularly since his bass has passive electronics. How much more energy could a passive bass pick-up generate than an active electronics electric guitar? I've recorded guitars and basses direct-in to mixing boards and haven't noticed much if any difference in levels; however the music being recorded did not have a great amount of dynamics. If you overdrive any amp you have the possibility of blowing the speakers attached to it - but I tend to think that wouldn't be any difference between a guitar and a bass in that regard. I've used a 10 watt practice guitar amp before I got my bass combo amp without any problems (of course, I didn't kick the gain and volume up to 100% either - and neither did I with the guitar). Does anyone know the definitive answer to this question?