1) I'm leaning toward the PLX 3402 so I can run 700W/channel into each 8 ohm Acme LowB2. The 3402 would also give me the option of running both LowB2s off one channel and an EAVL210 off the other, if/when I need the extra volume. If I get the 3402, I've got all the power I need in one box. And the THD is low running stereo, if this matters much. 2) The 1602 gives me 1600W bridged into 4ohms (800W per Acme). Plenty! For less $$$. But I'll have to carry my WT800 along if I need to add the EAVL210 . And the THD is higher when bridged. I'll be using an Alembic F1-X preamp. So, two questions: Does the PLX 3402 need the "Q-mod" to be driven by the F1-X, whereas the PLX 1602 DOESN'T need the Q-mod? I've searched and found different opinions. And second, should the THD (higher when bridging the 1602, lower when running the 3402 stereo) influence my choice between the two amps? Thanks in advance.