So I decided to tune my 5 string Ibanez Mikro 2 semi tones up to F#1 to D3, from previous using standard E tuning, E1 to C3, since with the way I use it, I guess more sort of like you would use a Bass VI type instrument or a baritone guitar, playing a lot of simple chords and harmonizing, often with several strings ringing at once, the higher tuning and increased tension, that is now closer to the kind of tension you would get from a 34" scale bass in standard E tuning, prevents it from getting muddy, but still has sufficient bottom end to support my compositions, and without it sounding too thin in any way. Improved the tone of my bass for how I use it a whole lot, as said, using a lot of chords, not playing it as you traditionally would play a bass, and splitting my signal in 2 parallel signal chains, one carrying my bass signal, and one running through an octaver, pitching it 1 octave up, giving me an effect similar to playing a 10 string octave bass (with 5 pairs of bass/octave strings), just with the advantage of me being able to run different effects on respectively the bass and 1 octave up signal. You can hear some samples of how it sounds, playing some of the compositions I use it for in this post by me from the "Stoner/Doom Bassists Thread": Stoner/Doom Bassists Thread, Part 90: Maxed Out Now to my question, would you still call it a bass tuned this way? I mean technically it is 1 semi tone closer to a bass tuned in standard E tuning than a baritone guitar tuned in standard A tuning, but does using the standard F# tuning, f#1 to D3, really make it more of a 5 string down tuned baritone guitar with wide string spacing than a bass? Though as an example standard F# tuning, F#1 to G2, is in fact actually fairly commonly used for more solo oriented pieces for classical music on upright bass. I know it doesn't really matter what it is called as long as it works for what I use it for, just curious of people's opinions on the matter.