Had no hope of finding the answers through a search, so here goes with a really amateurish question:
PJ basses seem a whole lot more versatile to me in terms of achieving a greater variety of sounds. So there are two things I'm wondering:
- Why do Fender only make P or J, not PJs? I'd have thought there'd be a big market for a bass like that.
- Obviously, everyone will have a preference for one or t'other, but what's the usual rationale behind committing to having just one of them, and thereby losing the versatility that having the other would provide? To my beginner's mind, it seems to me that adding one doesn't harm the other, if that makes sense, but my first guess would be that a proper P bass has a better P sound than can be achieved from a PJ bass.
I'm sure I'll cringe if I re-read this a few months down the line, but in my time of ignorance, help much appreciated.
PJ basses seem a whole lot more versatile to me in terms of achieving a greater variety of sounds. So there are two things I'm wondering:
- Why do Fender only make P or J, not PJs? I'd have thought there'd be a big market for a bass like that.
- Obviously, everyone will have a preference for one or t'other, but what's the usual rationale behind committing to having just one of them, and thereby losing the versatility that having the other would provide? To my beginner's mind, it seems to me that adding one doesn't harm the other, if that makes sense, but my first guess would be that a proper P bass has a better P sound than can be achieved from a PJ bass.
I'm sure I'll cringe if I re-read this a few months down the line, but in my time of ignorance, help much appreciated.
