Again, with this questioning/rebellious streak I'm in right now, this one seriously might ruffle some feathers, but that's where the fun lies. Here goes.
In spending a lot of time studying improvisation, I've been wondering how truly important learning bebop really is. (Before you start writing scathing replies, please read on). I understand the stance that the language of jazz is indeed based on the harmonic and melodic foundations set in bebop and furthered in the hard bop styles. But I can't help but be bothered when I hear a statement like "All these free players use that term as an excuse to not learn how to play changes." Or "Yeah, he can play a bunch of random notes, but can he play over a ii-V-I?" Or "The best free players can also blow over Donna Lee at any time." or variations on all three.
So what makes what some avant-garde or free improviser's music so much less valid than someone making all the changes?
I've been spending some time listening to Peter Kowald and while I don't know enough about his studies as far as improvisation goes, I assume that he might not have spent years and years playing Cherokee in all 12 keys. Yet I'm completely enamored by his improvisations, just as I am when I listen to Oscar Pettiford. So if he indeed didn't study "the language of jazz," what makes his music less valid or interesting than Pettiford's?
Maybe I'm weird for liking Albert Ayler as much as Sonny Stitt and John Cage as much as Beethoven.
Again, these are questions that I'm hoping to open up to debate. Everyones' wrong opinions are welcome
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In spending a lot of time studying improvisation, I've been wondering how truly important learning bebop really is. (Before you start writing scathing replies, please read on). I understand the stance that the language of jazz is indeed based on the harmonic and melodic foundations set in bebop and furthered in the hard bop styles. But I can't help but be bothered when I hear a statement like "All these free players use that term as an excuse to not learn how to play changes." Or "Yeah, he can play a bunch of random notes, but can he play over a ii-V-I?" Or "The best free players can also blow over Donna Lee at any time." or variations on all three.
So what makes what some avant-garde or free improviser's music so much less valid than someone making all the changes?
I've been spending some time listening to Peter Kowald and while I don't know enough about his studies as far as improvisation goes, I assume that he might not have spent years and years playing Cherokee in all 12 keys. Yet I'm completely enamored by his improvisations, just as I am when I listen to Oscar Pettiford. So if he indeed didn't study "the language of jazz," what makes his music less valid or interesting than Pettiford's?
Maybe I'm weird for liking Albert Ayler as much as Sonny Stitt and John Cage as much as Beethoven.
Again, these are questions that I'm hoping to open up to debate. Everyones' wrong opinions are welcome