I am hoping to simplify things. If I have a pedal like a sansamp and I have an amp with an EQ. Aren't these overriding the EQ of an active bass? Or isn't some of this tweaking redundant? Besides the convince aspect...
Whereas if I have a passive bass with a sansamp pedal + an EQ on my amp wouldn't I be able to replicate what can be done on an active?
Thank you!
Whereas if I have a passive bass with a sansamp pedal + an EQ on my amp wouldn't I be able to replicate what can be done on an active?
Thank you!