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The Purpose of Chord Inversions?

I know that some composers/arrangers use chord inversions so that some of the jumps between the roots of chords in a progression aren't as large.

I also know that different inversions have a different feel, but I have a question about this point...

The root position of a Major triad is comprised of the Root/Tonic, a Major 3rd, and a Perfect 5th.

The first inversion of that Major triad is now built with the Major 3rd as the Root, and the original Root/Tonic is now on top of the chord. This first inversion is essentially now comprised of a minor 3rd and a minor 6th. The inverted chord has a familiar sound to the Root position chord (as it has the same notes), but the intervals now suggest a minor tonality, and indeed it does have a bit of a "minor" sound to it to me.

Do some composers/arrangers use the first inversion of a Major triad to make a Major chord sound more like a minor chord?
 
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A first inversion major chord can also serve the function of a Neapolitan chord when modulating from one key to another. In a modulation like that, the inverted major chord will be re-interpreted as the minor subdominant chord of the target key.

(Interestingly enough, a first inversion major triad always sounds like a Neapolitan to me...)

Most often, first inversions will just be Used to smoothen out a bass movement. Bach liked to do that a lot.
 
The purpose of inversions ---- IMO with piano or the keyboard inversions are used to move from one chord to the next with the least movement, i.e. play in place --- as you have already mentioned.

With praise music I see a lot of slash chords used and just take for granted the songwriter wanted the slash note to be heard. Why? I leave to the songwriter and just do as he/she wants... I'm also sure the other guys will give better answers than this.

Good luck.
 
I don't hear inversions shift from major to minor. An inverted major chord, to me still sounds like a major chord, just rearranged a bit.
Funny, to me, 3/5/1 sounds way more 'major' with the root on top instead of 1/3/5...

Thanks guys. I thought of this major/minor shift before I actually plugged it into my DAW software to hear it for myself. It's possible I tricked my mind into hearing what I expected to hear. I'll listen to it again later today. Thanks.
 
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A first inversion major chord can also serve the function of a Neapolitan chord when modulating from one key to another. In a modulation like that, the inverted major chord will be re-interpreted as the minor subdominant chord of the target key.

(Interestingly enough, a first inversion major triad always sounds like a Neapolitan to me...)

Most often, first inversions will just be Used to smoothen out a bass movement. Bach liked to do that a lot.

That's interesting. Do you know of any songs/pieces where the first inversion major chord is used to modulate a key? I'd like to hear that in action, and analyze it a bit.
 
I know that some composers/arrangers use chord inversions so that some of the jumps between the roots of chords in a progression aren't as large.

I also know that different inversions have a different feel, but I have a question about this point...

The root position of a Major triad is comprised of the Root/Tonic, a Major 3rd, and a Perfect 5th.

The first inversion of that Major triad is now built with the Major 3rd as the Root, and the original Root/Tonic is now on top of the chord. This first inversion is essentially now comprised of a minor 3rd and a minor 6th. The inverted chord has a familiar sound to the Root position chord (as it has the same notes), but the intervals now suggest a minor tonality, and indeed it does have a bit of a "minor" sound to it to me.

Do some composers/arrangers use the first inversion of a Major triad to make a Major chord sound more like a minor chord?
We need to separate chord inversions/voice leading in the right piano hand (from classical harmony) and the bass instrument playing 3rd or 5th while other harmony instruments are playing a chord.
Ex.
C/E.
While the bass plays E, other harmony instruments are playing C major.
Let's say if that moment, the keyboard player decides to be "cool", embellish that C major chord and play it as Emin7 as E - G - B - D (rootless C9), then it will sound minor; otherwise,
1st inversion is weaker and 2nd is the weakest.
 
We need to separate chord inversions/voice leading in the right piano hand (from classical harmony) and the bass instrument playing 3rd or 5th while other harmony instruments are playing a chord.
Ex.
C/E.
While the bass plays E, other harmony instruments are playing C major.
Let's say if that moment, the keyboard player decides to be "cool", embellish that C major chord and play it as Emin7 as E - G - B - D (rootless C9), then it will sound minor; otherwise,
1st inversion is weaker and 2nd is the weakest.
Awesome. Thanks!
 
LMAO. You got me. I saw you posted a link and got excited that it would be a really good resource, despite not understanding the digestion part of the joke.
Laugh is a good medicine.
Chord inversions come from Classical Harmony about voice leading "nuances" in soprano, tenor, alto, bass arrangements - how to "properly" join chords.
 
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Because the second inversion is the weakest, it can lend itself to some interesting applications.
I use double stops a lot-
Let's look at g-c-e; many times, I will skip the c and use the other two notes-I can play them over a Cmaj,C7,A7.