I know that some composers/arrangers use chord inversions so that some of the jumps between the roots of chords in a progression aren’t as large. I also know that different inversions have a different feel, but I have a question about this point... The root position of a Major triad is comprised of the Root/Tonic, a Major 3rd, and a Perfect 5th. The first inversion of that Major triad is now built with the Major 3rd as the Root, and the original Root/Tonic is now on top of the chord. This first inversion is essentially now comprised of a minor 3rd and a minor 6th. The inverted chord has a familiar sound to the Root position chord (as it has the same notes), but the intervals now suggest a minor tonality, and indeed it does have a bit of a “minor” sound to it to me. Do some composers/arrangers use the first inversion of a Major triad to make a Major chord sound more like a minor chord?