So, I can't really get my head around it and decided to get some insights from the talkbass community.
When I use a setup with two amps, why would I benefit from phase inversion? I know that I get more bass, more clarity and better sound with a splitter with phase inversion, but in theory it should be the other way round because the phase inverted wave of one amp would physically delete the wave of the other amp. So... what's going on?
When I use a setup with two amps, why would I benefit from phase inversion? I know that I get more bass, more clarity and better sound with a splitter with phase inversion, but in theory it should be the other way round because the phase inverted wave of one amp would physically delete the wave of the other amp. So... what's going on?