Alright TBers, I need some help. Im having a hard time putting my mind around modes. Im not looking for a debate on the difference between scales or modes. I am trying my hardest to subscribe to the modes=moods and that a mode isnt just the same scale with a different starting point. So for this discussion, lets assume that is the case.
Heres a little background. I was told learn the modes and scales and eventually they will click. I know all my 2 octave scales and all my arpeggios up and down. I want to learn jazz really bad so Ive been listening to, playing along, and digesting jazz a lot lately. I also bought the irealbook for my iPhone.
When Im soloing over a jazz piece or even a simple ii V I progression Im having a hard time practically applying modes. I can solo or walk using the arpeggios as references or anchors, but my question is can I solo using a single mode over the entire song to create the mood?, If so, then re solo the next pass using a different mode where it changes the mood of what Im playing? I have been trying this over a ii V I and it just doesnt seem to work if I play Dorian mode it obviously sounds great over the ii but it gets harder to use that mode on the V or the I and I find myself reverting to the Mixolydian or Ionian to make it sound good. If I just plow through it using the Dorian mode it just seems like Im trying to pound a square peg into a round hole. I guess in my mind when thinking that modes=moods, I could solo over a piece using different modes to change the mood/sound of my solo for the duration of the song, regardless of the chord changes (as long as the section stays in the same key). Was this ignorant on my part or am I missing something? I might be trying to hit a nail with a screwdriver here maybe modes cannot be applied the way I imagined them
Are there any videos that show the difference of each mode over the same piece (ie ii V I) without a direct correlation to the chord? (ii=Dorian I=Ionian etc) I just would really like some advice from the folks that claim that modes=moods.
Heres a little background. I was told learn the modes and scales and eventually they will click. I know all my 2 octave scales and all my arpeggios up and down. I want to learn jazz really bad so Ive been listening to, playing along, and digesting jazz a lot lately. I also bought the irealbook for my iPhone.
When Im soloing over a jazz piece or even a simple ii V I progression Im having a hard time practically applying modes. I can solo or walk using the arpeggios as references or anchors, but my question is can I solo using a single mode over the entire song to create the mood?, If so, then re solo the next pass using a different mode where it changes the mood of what Im playing? I have been trying this over a ii V I and it just doesnt seem to work if I play Dorian mode it obviously sounds great over the ii but it gets harder to use that mode on the V or the I and I find myself reverting to the Mixolydian or Ionian to make it sound good. If I just plow through it using the Dorian mode it just seems like Im trying to pound a square peg into a round hole. I guess in my mind when thinking that modes=moods, I could solo over a piece using different modes to change the mood/sound of my solo for the duration of the song, regardless of the chord changes (as long as the section stays in the same key). Was this ignorant on my part or am I missing something? I might be trying to hit a nail with a screwdriver here maybe modes cannot be applied the way I imagined them
Are there any videos that show the difference of each mode over the same piece (ie ii V I) without a direct correlation to the chord? (ii=Dorian I=Ionian etc) I just would really like some advice from the folks that claim that modes=moods.
One of the best comments on this topic I have read.