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The way I see it is a couple of leading tones resolving to chord tones.
B->up a half step to C
Ab->up a half step to A
F---F
It resolves in an interesting way to F.
I can hear that it resolves on F but I don't understand why!
I'd approach the question by comparing the voice leading :
in the V-I motion of C7 to F:
E moves a halfstep up to F
Bb moves a half step down to A
G moves a hole step down to A
C is static
in Bdim to F:
Ab moves a half step up to A
B moves a half step up to C
D moves a hole step down to C
F is static
while not identical, there is a lot similar of step-wise motion resolving to F maj, which is why it "resolves"
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I think the songwriter never thought that out: probably just wanted to have a smooth chromatic motion between Bbmaj and Fmaj, so they just raised the Bb's root note for a measure, to get B-Bb-C
Yeah. I used to watch people arguing about what the root was of some diminished chord when they four possible choices before the bass player might substitute something else below it anyway.
lol! yeah, no doubt.+1 & LOL
It's the other way around, in fact. In most dim chord cases, the bass note intented by the composer is also the root.
So f.e. Bbdim/E looks pretty stupid.
it's also easier to write.Ah I always heard this A7 as a C#m7b5, but A7 sounds so much more manly.
+1 & LOL
It's the other way around, in fact. In most dim chord cases, the bass note intented by the composer is also the root.
So f.e. Bbdim/E looks pretty stupid.