My band covers Madonna's "Like A Virgin" and there is a part on the bridge where they go from D# to G# a few times, then to round the last bar out they play like a "doomp, boomp boomp" (technical speak haha). It's at 2:05 on the recording I have.
The fill is a simple octave skip from the high G# (6th fret D string) to 2 low G#'s(4th fret E string).
One guitarist always plays C# over that, and it clashes to my ear. He insists its right, saying C# works with the chord. I recently asked him to just play G# and sometimes he does and sometimes he doesn't so I am getting somewhere on the musical side of things, but when he plays the G# he always screws his face up.
I'm wondering whether there might be some theory I can review and use as part of the argument next time it comes up. I'm not big on theory but I think it's naturally resolving to the lowest note in the chord/scale if that makes sense. I'd like to be in a position to explain it over just telling him to play it, if possible, but my self taught theory isn't providing the answer my ear screams at me
The fill is a simple octave skip from the high G# (6th fret D string) to 2 low G#'s(4th fret E string).
One guitarist always plays C# over that, and it clashes to my ear. He insists its right, saying C# works with the chord. I recently asked him to just play G# and sometimes he does and sometimes he doesn't so I am getting somewhere on the musical side of things, but when he plays the G# he always screws his face up.
I'm wondering whether there might be some theory I can review and use as part of the argument next time it comes up. I'm not big on theory but I think it's naturally resolving to the lowest note in the chord/scale if that makes sense. I'd like to be in a position to explain it over just telling him to play it, if possible, but my self taught theory isn't providing the answer my ear screams at me