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how bass parts affect your sound?

ggunn said:
Irrespective of what Wiki (I am also skeptical of an encyclopaedia wherein anyone can make entries) sez, I know a bit about how the scientific method works; in earning two technical degrees I was steeped in it.

Irrespective of Wiki, we wouldn't have been talking about Wiki in the first place.

Do you know the backstory to this? If not, find the thread, read up on it and get back to me. There's way too much said there to rehash it. Bottom line, it amounted to Roger Sadowsky has experienced certain tonal characteristics of his basses that seem to follow using certain types of woods for certain parts of his basses. In his experience, with the basses HE BUILDS (something that some can't seem to get a grasp on), he found that using Maple for this part consistently gave a type of sound that wasn't displayed when using Alder for the same part.

So of course this "proves" nothing.

While some love to get academic about this, in the event I wanted a Sadowsky and I wanted the tonal base that he consistently gets with whatever type of wood he "thinks" he gets it with... you guys can have Wiki, scientific method, whatever... I'll go with Roger every time:D. And Mike Tobias and Kevin Brubaker and any of the other builders who actually "think" wood makes a difference, in many cases a very big one.

If you say that X has an effect on Y, then it's an opinion (or hypothesis) no matter how experientially formed that opinion is if it is not proven by objectively obtained, unambiguous, measureable, and (above all) repeatable data. If there is some data to support the concept, but it doesn't rise to the level of a proof, then it is a theory (and still an opinion). If you merely observe a change in Y when you know there to be a change in X, that in itself does not constitute proof that Y depends on X; correlation does not imply causality.

And lead us not into the realm of "yeah, well prove it doesn't"; the world is full of PSMJ (pseudo-scientific mumbo-jumbo) based on the concept that if something can be conceived of which cannot be disproven, then it must be true.

I've said nothing scientific or psuedo-scientific about this... that apparently is your schtick.;)

This also apparently has to be far more complicated to some of you than it it to some of us. There's nothing scientific, acoording to you, to back any of this stuff up as fact but who is silly enough to offer that differences don't clearly exist?

Only in our minds of course. Mass hallucination. Because some people can't hear a difference, no one can. Got it.
:cool:
 
Brad Johnson said:
Didn't you leave?:D

Since you're back, care to address the post you bailed on?

You defined the difference between "never" and "as close to never as you can get without actually being never" as a "gigantic hole in logic", and congratulated yourself for a wonderful semantic victory. I didn't "bail", I simply felt that wasn't worthy of a response.

And "since I'm back" (whatever that means): we've been killing too many threads lately with ridiculous semantic arguments. Let's sum up the stupid argument we've been having in this thread:
1) Electric bass has been recorded unamplified with a microphone at least once, which is a far, far cry from "never".
2) Roger Sadowsky has an opinion about the way alder and ash Sadowsky basses sound.

How these are relevant to the topic are way beyond me. But if you want to take my departure as a sign that you're victorious in whatever it is we're babbling about, then go right ahead, you can have it!
:hyper:
 
Fuzzbass said:
You defined the difference between "never" and "as close to never as you can get without actually being never" as a "gigantic hole in logic", and congratulated yourself for a wonderful semantic victory. I didn't "bail", I simply felt that wasn't worthy of a response.

Are you serious or are you just kidding? I hope the latter.

Show me where I specifically defined that as a gigantic hole in logic. Show me where you didn't see the "s" on the word "holes"?

Is that worthy of a response... or any of the other gigantic holes I mentioned before?:D. There are several pretty blatant ones. Maybe you were joking.


And "since I'm back" (whatever that means):

"See ya, this thread's all yours".

Whatever that means. :D

we've been killing too many threads lately with ridiculous semantic arguments. Let's sum up the stupid argument we've been having in this thread:
1) Electric bass has been recorded unamplified with a microphone at least once, which is a far, far cry from "never".

That is hardly the crux of what's going on in this thread but if you now want to reduce it to that, I understand. It was a side note from one of those other threads.

You were emphatic about how irrelevant the unplugged sound of a bass is and to prove it you brought up the fact that it had never been recorded unamplified.

Then it was you who brought up a percentage of how wrong you were. :D

Now it's semantics.
:p

2) Roger Sadowsky has an opinion about the way alder and ash Sadowsky basses sound.


Hmmm...

How these are relevant to the topic are way beyond me.

Ask the guy who brought him up... you:

"Originally Posted by Fuzzbass
As part of an earlier argument, you quoted Roger Sadowsky as being absolute on ash vs. alder Sadowskys. Now you're saying you disagree with him. This confirms my point that matters of tone are simply opinion and we're all entitled to disagree, whether we're "experts" or not. Fair enough!"

Yes, I called this weak... because it was ridiculously so.

That was clearly based on you not even trying to understand my position on this. From post #123:

Quote:
Originally Posted by Brad Johnson
"Agreed... we disagree. More often than not they do sound different. Very different".

You: "Actually, I agree with "more often than not". I thought you've been trying to say that ash and alder can always be distinguished. My point all along has been "often but not always".

That was my point all along... yet you're debating with me based on what?

You THOUGHT I said Ash and Alder can always be distinguished. Now why did you think that? Who knows? I never came close to saying it in any of the conversations, in fact I've gone out of my way to make the point that you can't come up with an ABSOLUTE in general on these things... too many variables. Yet somehow you continued to ignore or miss that... until post #123 in this thread. Finally:bassist:

And how on Earth did you come up with I now disagree with Roger about his experiences? Never mind.

But if you want to take my departure as a sign that you're victorious in whatever it is we're babbling about, then go right ahead, you can have it!

But you're still here:D

I took it as what it was... you saying you were leaving this thread to me. Maybe the fact that you finally acknowledged you only thought you knew what I'd been saying when you clearly didn't was the impetus.


Seriously, if you find any of this insulting, feel free to ignore it. It's hard to believe you've been going at this this long based on a complete misperception of what I said. This is still all fun and games to me.
 
Brad Johnson said:
I've said nothing scientific or psuedo-scientific about this... that apparently is your schtick.;)

This also apparently has to be far more complicated to some of you than it it to some of us. There's nothing scientific, acoording to you, to back any of this stuff up as fact but who is silly enough to offer that differences don't clearly exist?

Only in our minds of course. Mass hallucination. Because some people can't hear a difference, no one can. Got it.
:cool:


Wow, speaking of putting words in someone else's mouth. ;^)
 
ggunn said:
Wow, speaking of putting words in someone else's mouth. ;^)


I quoted you... unless you didn't actually write this:

"If you say that X has an effect on Y, then it's an opinion (or hypothesis) no matter how experientially formed that opinion is if it is not proven by objectively obtained, unambiguous, measureable, and (above all) repeatable data. If there is some data to support the concept, but it doesn't rise to the level of a proof, then it is a theory (and still an opinion). If you merely observe a change in Y when you know there to be a change in X, that in itself does not constitute proof that Y depends on X; correlation does not imply causality.

And lead us not into the realm of "yeah, well prove it doesn't"; the world is full of PSMJ (pseudo-scientific mumbo-jumbo) based on the concept that if something can be conceived of which cannot be disproven, then it must be true. "


You brought up the PSMJ nonsense in anticipation of a response... one you didn't get. You were lead not, just like you requested;)

The rest is content of this thread.
 
lowtide said:
I was wondering why you left out strings????

This thread was initially started with the intention of discerning what the most important places to spend money are on a bass with regards to affecting it's tone, as I am looking at buying a new bass.

Strings are not a determining factor in choosing a new bass for me, but yes, I should have given the initial post more of a situational referance, as strings are a big factor in influencing tone...