• TalkBass has been independent since 1998. Add your voice.
    Create a free account to reply to discussions, view embedded media, and browse with fewer display ads.
    Join freeLog in
    Want zero display ads or expanded classifieds tools? Compare plans.

How much should you be paying for a Bass?

Jan 7, 2008
475
6
United Republic of Europe
Disclosures
IT Professional!
Not sure I've titled this thread well.....

What I mean is How much should you be paying for a non Euro\N.American bass?

It occurs to me...... There are only a few Korean, Indonesian, China instrument factories. The do all the OEM for the big brands!

So.....
Shine do Peavy, Ibanez, and others, as well as their own.
The other companies the others...

Now if a bass has the specs you want, what difference is there if it has Ibanez, Peavey or what ever on the headstock. It going to be built by the same operative! The quality, blind folded is going to be the same!

I one looks at this bass:
Invalid Link Removed

it costs around 300, the Ibanez equivalent costs a bit more, is the Ibanez worth more when its probably made by the same bloke!

Also, stupid Warwick, when the Korean Corvettes come in September priced at around 700, do they really offer 700 worth of bass ,when one speced the same out of the same factory, probably built by the same operative, with a different label costs half or even less that half the price.

Hence above a certain price threshold isn't it better to buy Euro\N.American, where you pay for that Euro\N.American Quality?

I mean if one will pay 700 for a Korean made Corvette std Passive, isn't it better to buy a Cunnuck made Godin Freeway, albeit with less frets?

Invalid Link Removed


Just some thoughts, I wait for the Mad assaults.
 
@OP:

I don't have any factual data to back up a firm answer, but I'll throw my two cents:

I do have a 44-01 made in Korea Lakland and it's very well made; I believe it deserves the 700$ new.

I also think that those korean factories are able to build basses to your specs; you want a 300$ bass, you get a 300$ bass, but the same worker may also very well have a 700$ spec'ed guitar on his bench, or a 1700$ one, for that matter.

Of course, if that bass is a famous brand, you may end up paying a bit extra just for the name ( thanks lord Sony ain't building basses :D ) but otherwise, I believe that, for the korean mass produced basses, you pretty much get what you're paying for.

Regards,
Adrian
 
is this Canada vs Korea? or Warwick vs Godin? question?

They were just examples!

The question is where is the price cut off point for a far eastern instrument!

I would say 1 is the lowest priced Euro\N.American made.

and 2 is the lowest priced same spec,(electronics\wood\neckthrubody\ect) instrument, out of the relevant factory!

In other words if you want a Fender, it has to be an American
if you want a Warwick it has to be German.

If you want Far eastern instrument just make sure you aren't paying for the label with regards what other stuff is coming out of that factory
 
You are comparing only production, and not the engineering, the sourcing of materials, etc. That plays alot into the price, as does how much QC the brand is willing to pay for...for instance, when they contract one of these builders(say CorTek) what tolerances will they expect the manufacturer to keep. How far are they allowed differences from the original engineered plans...that's just some of the differences.
So yes, I think you more or less get what you pay for. The bigger brands can afford to pay the bill to be sure they get what they pay for. Everything I have from Cor-Tek is top notch instruments.
 
You are comparing only production, and not the engineering, the sourcing of materials, etc. That plays alot into the price, as does how much QC the brand is willing to pay for...for instance, when they contract one of these builders(say CorTek) what tolerances will they expect the manufacturer to keep. How far are they allowed differences from the original engineered plans...that's just some of the differences.
So yes, I think you more or less get what you pay for. The bigger brands can afford to pay the bill to be sure they get what they pay for. Everything I have from Cor-Tek is top notch instruments.

Yea but my point is if you know something is made by Cort, you can get the Cort bass with the same spec a lot lot cheaper!
 
Personally, I'd go for the Godin, but I'm not speaking through blind patriotism. For me, buying something by Brand X is a gesture of support for that brand. I believe that Cort's crass treatment of its workers is pretty well documented, and I refuse to support that. Godin is a company made up of fairly happy, well-motivated workers, and I find that to be worth rewarding with my money.

Godin products also tend to be very good for the money.

Full disclosure: I have a Korean-made Lakland 55-02 that came from a Cort factory. If I'd known then what I know now, I'd have likely changed my purchase. Also, I find that the prices on the Laklands to be a *little* high.
 
So what you are saying, Oldprussians, is that everything that comes out from the same factory should have the same price? Because it's "made by the same operative"?

If you are in the manufacturing line you will know that factories can manufacture your products to any price point. Tolerances, materials. I've seen a ten-fold price difference in the price of small, metal parts due to the accuracy of dimensions, and the accuracy of thickness of electro-plating required. This is large scale, almost fully automated CNC metal part making. What makes you think bass building will not have the same options for tolerances, not to mention materials?

Or do you also think that a MIA Standard P and a MIA Steve Bailey J should be the same price too? You know, since they come from the same factory?

I also sense a lot of racism here. Why EXACTLY is a N.American/Canadian bass BETTER than a Japanese/Korean/Chinese/Indonesian bass?
 
It depends on the bass (and the manufacturer's quality control), not the country of origin. I love my Lakland Skyline Hollowbody, which was built in Korea, then finished in the USA. I have three other basses built in the USA (G&L L-2000, Fender P and Kramer), one built in Mexico (Fender J), and one built in Japan (Fender Aerodyne P). My amp (Little Mark Tube) comes from Italy, and my cabs came from the USA (Ear Candy).
 
So what you are saying, Oldprussians is that everything that comes out from the same factory should have the same price? Because it's "made by the same operative"?

If you are in the manufacturing line you will know that factories can manufacture your products to any price point. Tolerances, materials. I've seen a ten-fold price difference in the price of small, metal parts due to the accuracy of dimensions, and the accuracy of thickness of electro-plating required. This is large scale, almost fully automated CNC metal part making. What makes you think bass building will not have the same options for tolerances, not to mention materials?

Or do you also think that a MIA Standard P and a MIA Steve Bailey J should be the same price too? You know, since they come from the same factory?

I also sense a lot of racism here. Why EXACTLY is a N.American/Canadian bass BETTER than a Japanese/Korean/Chinese/Indonesian bass?

Wow wow wow!

Easy on the racism! Hey I believe one planet one people!

Look I would always but e European car, specially German, or Italian Sports car, over anything! Why? Because there is a heritage in that sort of thing, "Cuore sportivo"! Knowing perfectly how they are made doesn't make you a great car manufacture. Far eastern cars are technically perfect, but just don't "feel" right, they don't have "soul". Yes if you need to go from a to b, efficiently, without breaking down, any far eastern car is good. But people don't just want to travel from a to b, they want to feel good driving it.

No matter how professional the chef is Westerners trying to do far eastern cuisine always tastes rubbish!

Now I have done a research on patterns in music, for example.

Why is it that some people say, that the way far eastern players play music is different to western people. Why is that? Pure racism, or is that anything else? Well, how you compose and play music is directly influenced by your native tongue, due to inflections. So Debussy, sounded like Debussy, because his first language was French! Von Karajan, conducted and produce music like he did and did German music like he did 'cuase he was Austrian. Trust I've heard good western musicians trying to do Chinese music and they were crap!

It DOES NOT MATTER what your genetic material is, but your first language affects everything you do in terms creativity!

Thus a Chinese chap born brought up in Italy, with a first language as Italian, creatively is Italian!

Those who are of dual or triple Mother tongue are really lucky!

God Bless you all!