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Increase string tension by reversing headstock?

Another factor is that the soundboard is where the actual action is. And the string's energy is strongest at it's fundamental. That's most of what is induced into the soundboard. If you play C0 and C1 at the same time, the energy from C1's fundamental would tend to far outweigh the first partial of C0 in terms of how the soundboard is being excited. The octave related waves in the soundboard need to be sympathetic. The strings themselves may have their oddities. But the wavelength of a 256Hz wave is twice that of a 512Hz wave in the same piece of wood at the same time. It doesn't matter what the highly imperfect string is doing. The overtone series in nature can't be overcome by an inherent mechanical imperfection in a man-made wire.
 
So I guess to sum up my position, the PTG teaches their techs to stretch octaves based on a BELIEF. The belief that stretching is necessary because of the very real and quantifiable phenemenon of enharmonicity. The math makes sense in the context in which it's discussed, but it simply doesn't address all of the issues at play in a piano, or in the human ear for that matter. So maybe it's a preference and maybe some pianos sound better with a stretch than without. But to simply say you MUST do it, ALL of the time to some degree on every piano is plainly and simply ridiculous. It should be taught as a viable concept and solution to certain kinds of problems encountered when trying to make a piano sound good. When identified that way, I wouldn't even consider a discussion about it. But because of the PTG's belief based ways, I can't find a piano tuner who can put a good temperment on my piano because the only one they know has stretch built into it. That's all I'm saying. I have good ears. I grew up in a family where the inaccurate speed of radio stations' turntables was dinner table conversation. Heck, my dad started pulling note names out of the air at age 3 with 100% accuracy (according to his mom) and my mother knows every song in a movie score by the time it's over...and remembers it. I tested out of ear training...all 4 years...at north texas when I was 18 years old without ever having taken an ear training or theory class. (so why do I get asked to teach ear training all the time...I don't know how to learn it OR teach it...) So I feel very well justified in demanding that my piano be tuned the way I want it. Why should I have to accept anything less, just because my piano tuner BELIEVES that his way is better? Short sighted is what it is. Granted, it is my BELIEF that stretching doesn't sound good. And I'm not trying to tell anyone to change their own opinion on it. I'm 110% confident I know what I'm hearing, though. And to that end, my belief is my business. I want my piano tuned without a stretch. Who is the PTG to tell me I can't have that because of an ideological difference?

Of course the majority of piano tuners wouldn't have a chance in this argument...and that's even harder to take. They're doing it for no reason other than they've been told to. If I ask them to tune it without a stretch, they try to tell me the high end will sound flat. Phooey. It doesn't. That's not even the real argument that educated people are maintaining. I guess the VAST majority of tunings they do are for high schools or amatures or people who simply own a piano for the look of it and get it tuned once a year. But the customer base is much more diverse than that. Why must the PTG choose one method? What ever happened to customer service? Or consciensously establishing what service is actually necessary? Look, piano designers abhor enharmonicity. They don't design pianos to emphasize it. If your car's engine is designed to use 10W-30 synthetic oil and is properly maintained, your mechanic shouldn't put straight 50 weight in because he has some theory about it taking up some of the wear in your bearings. Now if ASE or some other organization like it started teaching that kind of thinking, they'd soon be rightly sued for damages resulting from engines burning up due to oil pump seals blowing out from too muh pressure and other related issues. In an old big block Chevy in 110 degree weather maybe it makes sense. Maybe there aren't "damages" that apply in this case, but it surely doesn't change the fact that they've chosen an opinion and scrounged for math to back it up. And the math explains the physics behind why it yields a desireable result sometimes. But that's all it does. Depending on the nature of the problem that's making the piano sound a way that you don't want it to, stretching might be a solution. It's not always the right thing to do.
 
I'd like to hear two (as near as possible to) identical pianos side by side, one stretched and the other not. Do you think you could get the Steinway showroom to do that? Or, a Yamaha recording-playback piano, tuned the two different ways, playing back the same file, and recorded, in a blind listening.
 
I'd like to hear two (as near as possible to) identical pianos side by side, one stretched and the other not. Do you think you could get the Steinway showroom to do that? Or, a Yamaha recording-playback piano, tuned the two different ways, playing back the same file, and recorded, in a blind listening.

The Roland (RD300sx or something like that) we just bought for my brother for xmas has that very capability. You can set it for any of about 12 different tuning temperaments and also you can turn off stretch tuning. With stretch tuning turned off it sounds fine as long as you stay within about an octave of range. But outside of that it sounds increasingly bad.

They put a lot of thought into this piano. For instance one of the effects is sympathetic string vibration which only operates when the damper pedal is pushed. Every note is sampled three times at different volumes. Things like that...
 
Are you seriously comparing a digi piano to a real one?

Comparing a real piano to a digital piano with sampled sounds from a real piano is a stronger analogy than stretch tuning to oil viscosity ;)

It plays notes, the notes have harmonic content, the harmonic content is exactly what was sampled from a real piano. Why would it not be a valid data point?
 
Longer mechanical length (anchor to anchor ie through body or longer headstock)= more mechanical string mass

D'Addario is obviously speaking subjectively. The static tension thing has been exhausted. Same string, same pitch, same SPEAKING length (transverse mode), same tension. Again, there can be a perceived difference in the resistance you feel from the string against your finger, but it's not necessarily a function of length, although it's been legitimately proposed that it could in a dynamic sense. But the static tension is the static tension at that pitch. If you want different tension for the same pitch and length you have to change the materials and hence the mass of the string.
 
Otis, please don't. Only the speaking mass of the string figures in the tension-mass-length-frequency equation. Proven in theory and experiment, incontrovertible. What we're talking about here are more subtle effects on tonality and feel while plucking.
 
I'm lost at the digital piano thing. It's outside the range of my thinking. The whole problem is that everyone is taking the position that the strings vibrate the air. But they don't very much. They vibrate the soundboard. The soundboard drives the air that drives your eardrum. That's where the sympathy or lack thereof occurs. Air doesn't have much enharmonicity. Comparing acoustic pianos to digital pianos is to isolate each individual string as it's own, uninteractive entity. That's not how pianos work. I can't intelligently discuss this paradigm.
 
Yes, in a physical piano, there are certainly complex interactions that are not modeled by a sample playback instrument.

Maybe a small point, but I would say, however, that the main difference is that these mechanical interactions do or don't take place. I don't see string-affects-soundboard-affects-air versus computer-affects-voltage-etc.-affects-air as an issue. One string affecting another through the soundboard would be an issue all by itself, IMO.

Some questions for me would be: First, why does a slightly sharp harmonic still sound OK with its own fundamental? (Granted, on a piano with short strings and great inharmonicity like a spinet, they don't sound good at all in the bass.) Second, is the fundamental of let's say, a 16va better off tuned to exactly 4X the frequency of the lower note (no stretch), or does it sound better tuned to the slightly sharp fourth harmonic of that lower note (stretched)? Because it will either be out of tune with the lower note's overtone in the first case, or in tune with the overtone but equally out of tune with the lower fundamental in the second case.

The proof really should be in the listening.
 
The proof IS in the listening. But how can you possibly know what you're listening to?!? With a digital piano you bring transduction into play which is the single most degrading component in sound reproduction. Once the sound turns into a voltage, it's an analogy to the sound. Hence the term analog. It's not the same as the sound. Then you convert it to a digital bitstream. Then to static PCM data. Then back to a bitstream. Then back to an analog voltage which MAYBE in the very highest end equipment bears a resemblence to the original voltage (probably not). Then you dump it via an amplifier into a coil and expect it to wiggle a piece of paper back and forth in a way that represents the original with any level of accuracy? The process is a mess. The only way you can use transduction in a reasonably scientific discussion is when the transduction component is the same in all things being compared. Telling me that a stretched octave tuning sounds right based on a digital sample recorded by some unknown microphone, processed to some unknown degree through some unknown equipment and designed to be played back and sound good through through a myriad of different speakers and amplifiers is a basis for a discussion of musical acoustics is crazy. I apologize, but I fear we're doing more philosophizing than thinking at this point. There are lots of great arguments being made here by a lot of people who know what they're talking about as much or more than I do. I'm just not hearing anybody talking about the big picture. Stretched octaves may have their place in practical real-world applied piano treatment, but the idea that this MUST be done is only slightly short of superstition. My point has always been that stretching octaves should not be treated is a law of nature because it ISN'T!!!!! Enharmonicity is...stretching octaves isn't. It's just a VERY UNNATURAL way of getting around certain problems that may sometimes hold validity. I don't know how much more inclusive I can possibly be than to suggest that there's not one hard and fast way to do it. How can any reasonable person think otherwise?
 

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