Is this correct?

[Luke73]

OK, going on this, I would disagree and say that the 20th fret would be a different distance to the nut, if one bass had 22, and the other 24 frets. Both same scale. Same distance (34") divided by 22 frets as opposed to 24 has to be very different numbers. I'm tired and probably wacked. I'm going to look at basstrucks cool stats again. Thanks.

Dude,

I think you're confused.

If two basses have the same scale, but different numbers of frets, they will have the same distance from nut to 20th fret, simply that the board with more frets will extend towards the bridge a little more.

Having the same scale, means that the distances between the frets are the same. If one has more frets than the other, it means just that - a couple more frets.

Or...just because one is a 35", it does not necessarily mean a 34" board has closer proximities?

A 34" board does have closer proximities than a 35" board. Of neccessity, the frets are closer together on the 34" board.

 

[xring]

I bow to you guys. That's what I get working for 12's on 3 hours sleep between. New rule: Don't post when drinking OR tired. I totally get it. Where the !**$ was I? It seems that being concerned about differences over 1" scale length as far as the fretting hand is concerned is very negligibe and not worth fretting (!) over. Thanks for the enlightenment and....goodnight