Im an amateur player who does quite a lot of orchestral work and I am sometimes troubled by when it is appropriate to put a bass part down an octave if you have a five string or extension and the part was written for a bass which didnt go below an E. I am quite interested in what the professional conventions are about this; whether they are to play parts as written; as they might have sounded had 5 strings been available in the past; or something else?
I think there are four main situations when this arises. In the first (A in the attached image), the bass part just jumps an octave up when it goes below the E whilst the 'cello carries on going down to the bottom of its range. I would usually play what is written for the 'cellos without hesitation.
In the second (B) the bass part has been substantially rewritten from the 'cello so that the octave jump is a little less obvious. Again, I would usually play the 'cellos part but often conductors do not agree. Equally, unless the publishers have produced a double 'cello / bass part (e.g. the Frank symphony) it can be hard to unpick when this has happened without going through a score in advance.
The other two situations concern when the bass part is independent of the 'cellos. Im am never quite sure what is the appropriate thing to do in these situations. For example, in (C), the bass part plays a pedal which could either be the same octave as the bottom of the 'cellos or an octave below. In the final example (D), the 'cellos are an octave higher and so the bottom octave for the bass would be a 16' basso; two octaves below the normal bass.
Often putting the bass note down an octave so there are two octaves between it and the 'cellos sounds very effective; it adds weight, gravity and finality to a piece that is otherwise missing. I particularly remember doing this two a dominant pedal at the end of a fugue when playing continuo a few years ago. After the concert, I overheard a couple of people talking about how good it was having a bass player because of the 8' foot bass at the end of that movement; I dont think they realised it was actually an octave lower than that and an octave lower than it should have been! However, it sometimes seems a bit too much, particularly at the ends of first movements of symphonies, and I wonder if it sounds a bit too amateurish. One thing Ive never had the courage to try is at the start of the Tchaikovsky Serenade for Strings where I often think the unison melody would sound considerably better with the basses dividing into two octaves for a basso profundo sound.
Anyway, enough of my ramblings; I was wondering what more those with a more professional outlook though? Apologies if this has been discussed before; I havent been able to find any helpful posts when searching!
-Jacob
I think there are four main situations when this arises. In the first (A in the attached image), the bass part just jumps an octave up when it goes below the E whilst the 'cello carries on going down to the bottom of its range. I would usually play what is written for the 'cellos without hesitation.
In the second (B) the bass part has been substantially rewritten from the 'cello so that the octave jump is a little less obvious. Again, I would usually play the 'cellos part but often conductors do not agree. Equally, unless the publishers have produced a double 'cello / bass part (e.g. the Frank symphony) it can be hard to unpick when this has happened without going through a score in advance.
The other two situations concern when the bass part is independent of the 'cellos. Im am never quite sure what is the appropriate thing to do in these situations. For example, in (C), the bass part plays a pedal which could either be the same octave as the bottom of the 'cellos or an octave below. In the final example (D), the 'cellos are an octave higher and so the bottom octave for the bass would be a 16' basso; two octaves below the normal bass.
Often putting the bass note down an octave so there are two octaves between it and the 'cellos sounds very effective; it adds weight, gravity and finality to a piece that is otherwise missing. I particularly remember doing this two a dominant pedal at the end of a fugue when playing continuo a few years ago. After the concert, I overheard a couple of people talking about how good it was having a bass player because of the 8' foot bass at the end of that movement; I dont think they realised it was actually an octave lower than that and an octave lower than it should have been! However, it sometimes seems a bit too much, particularly at the ends of first movements of symphonies, and I wonder if it sounds a bit too amateurish. One thing Ive never had the courage to try is at the start of the Tchaikovsky Serenade for Strings where I often think the unison melody would sound considerably better with the basses dividing into two octaves for a basso profundo sound.
Anyway, enough of my ramblings; I was wondering what more those with a more professional outlook though? Apologies if this has been discussed before; I havent been able to find any helpful posts when searching!
-Jacob