I currently play a 1968 P bass (I know my handle is 64 p bass but I don't own own one, have never owned one and I don't know what I was thinking when I created my name) that I bought in Athens, Ohio in 1981. For 28 years it was the only bass I owned.
Two years ago I bought a used 4 string Warwick FNA bass and it was nice but I kept going back to my '68. I came to realize that I'm partial to a p bass so I just traded in the Warwick on a Pino Palladino bass. I'm supposed to get the Pino before too long and am patiently awaiting it's arrival.
In the past, I've used roundwounds, including Thomastik-Infeld Roundwounds, on the '68 but for the last year or so have been using Thomastik-Infeld Flatwounds on it. I really like the sound and that may have helped steer me towards the Pino bass.
The Pino comes with Thomastik-Infeld Flatwounds on it and I'm probably going to keep it that way. The question is, what to do with the '68? If I keep the Thomastik-Infeld Flatwounds
on it will the 2 basses sound the same or do the individual characteristsics of each bass create enough variance in sound?
Thanks,
Tony
Two years ago I bought a used 4 string Warwick FNA bass and it was nice but I kept going back to my '68. I came to realize that I'm partial to a p bass so I just traded in the Warwick on a Pino Palladino bass. I'm supposed to get the Pino before too long and am patiently awaiting it's arrival.
In the past, I've used roundwounds, including Thomastik-Infeld Roundwounds, on the '68 but for the last year or so have been using Thomastik-Infeld Flatwounds on it. I really like the sound and that may have helped steer me towards the Pino bass.
The Pino comes with Thomastik-Infeld Flatwounds on it and I'm probably going to keep it that way. The question is, what to do with the '68? If I keep the Thomastik-Infeld Flatwounds
on it will the 2 basses sound the same or do the individual characteristsics of each bass create enough variance in sound?
Thanks,
Tony