I've got my eye on the Vintage Modified Squier PJ and almost pulled the trigger, because I love the P bass tone, and there's a bridge pickup added, just in case things get too muddy when downtuning to B. Sounds like a good deal, right?
The reason I'm hesitating is a post somewhere on TB claiming that due to different pickup output levels (P being the higher output pup) they both need to be balanced - either the J boosted or the P turned down. I'd like to know which method was used for the new Squier Vintage Modified PJ.
Now, I understand there's a good reason for providing a balance between the two pickups, I simply don't want the P pup to be subdued in any way, because if it is, I may as well just get a standard P bass.
tl;dr - I'd like to know if the output/tone of the P pickup on a Squier PJ bass is the same as it is on a standard P bass without the J pup.
The reason I'm hesitating is a post somewhere on TB claiming that due to different pickup output levels (P being the higher output pup) they both need to be balanced - either the J boosted or the P turned down. I'd like to know which method was used for the new Squier Vintage Modified PJ.
Now, I understand there's a good reason for providing a balance between the two pickups, I simply don't want the P pup to be subdued in any way, because if it is, I may as well just get a standard P bass.
tl;dr - I'd like to know if the output/tone of the P pickup on a Squier PJ bass is the same as it is on a standard P bass without the J pup.