Hiya,
I have a passive Fender PBass and a Genz Benz Contour 500. Up until recently, I would plug the bass into the amp, volume level set with the other players, and all was good. However, my band just acquired a great PA system with monitor and front facing speakers each with their own power amps, a sweet mixing board with XLR inputs, a 31 band EQ, etc. So, I have been using the DI output on the Contour 500 as an input to a channel on the board. After two rehearsals, it sounds pretty damn fine.
However, I was reading the amp's manual today and noticed that it said the DI output is pre-EQ. Which I think means my careful EQ tweaking on the amp is not going to the PA, so the PA is just getting basically a raw signal from the bass - I don't use any pedals.
So my questions are:
- What is the role of the amp's speaker if the DI signal is going to the PA?
- Should I mic the amp instead of using DI->PA in order to get the EQ'd sound?
Any thoughts or comments are appreciated!
I have a passive Fender PBass and a Genz Benz Contour 500. Up until recently, I would plug the bass into the amp, volume level set with the other players, and all was good. However, my band just acquired a great PA system with monitor and front facing speakers each with their own power amps, a sweet mixing board with XLR inputs, a 31 band EQ, etc. So, I have been using the DI output on the Contour 500 as an input to a channel on the board. After two rehearsals, it sounds pretty damn fine.
However, I was reading the amp's manual today and noticed that it said the DI output is pre-EQ. Which I think means my careful EQ tweaking on the amp is not going to the PA, so the PA is just getting basically a raw signal from the bass - I don't use any pedals.
So my questions are:
- What is the role of the amp's speaker if the DI signal is going to the PA?
- Should I mic the amp instead of using DI->PA in order to get the EQ'd sound?
Any thoughts or comments are appreciated!
