Both my Jazz basses the output is 7.5k in each pickup. The P/U heights are the same on both basses. Same bass settings & amp settings. But one bass is so much *lower* in volume than the other. They both have the same pots & capacitor & jack type. No one can figure out why it is. Does anyone have any idea why this would be?
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JAZZ Bass
- Thread starter Frank_Sereno
- Start date
Might be a good idea to give your thread a more specific title. "Jazz bass" alone is very little information on your quest....
Presuming no difference in the string gage or composition, my guess would be a difference in the magnet types
Jazz bass pickup volume. All the pickups were alnico in all the basses. Then I even put new Kent Armstrong pickups & still problem with volume. I'm changing the capacitor, pots & jack. If that doesn't work, well I just have to crank the amp up real high.
If the new Kent Armstrong pickups are well matched regarding windings and magnetic characteristics I'm thinking it might not be the pickups.
An important parameter is the distance between the pickups and the strings. You said the pickup heights are the same. By that do you mean the distance between the strings and pickups are the same on both basses?
Perhaps the sound from the strings is being attenuated somehow on the quieter one. Try it unplugged and see if there is a difference in the acoustic volumes.
An important parameter is the distance between the pickups and the strings. You said the pickup heights are the same. By that do you mean the distance between the strings and pickups are the same on both basses?
Perhaps the sound from the strings is being attenuated somehow on the quieter one. Try it unplugged and see if there is a difference in the acoustic volumes.
Thx for the info. It was lower with the old pickups as well. They were 7.5K. The distance fret to bottom of strings are the same. Also same gauge & strings. D'Adario wound rounds. It just seems impossible but it's happening. Unplugged they sound very similar. It's a real dilemma.
