Pickup Output levels. Active vs. Passive

[DavidE]

I have two basses, a stock Hamer Cruise Bass (USA) that I got from a TB member last week and a Fender Jazz that's stock with lace sensors and a Kubicki preamp. I think the Hamer has Duncan pickups. Both great instruments, but I'm surprised that the output of the Hamer is a lot higher than the output of the active system in the Fender. And the active selections on the Fender are louder than the passive selection (and sound better).

Does this seem right?

I forgot to add that I also get feedback from the Fender if I get close to the amp to tweak the amp (pickups facing the amp) during a gig. That seems really unusual for a bass with noiseless pickups.

But my soundman and I agree that the Fender with the active pickups probably sounds better (I use it in active mode without the mid boost).

Here's the Fender:

Here's the Hamer:

 

[mikezimmerman]

There is no real correlation between output levels and active vs. passive. Some pickups are very hot and others aren't. Some preamps provide a gain boost over the pickups' passive output, others don't.

Mike

 

[KingRazor]

Active pickups have lower impedence and thus, a lower output generally. This is why they are paired with preamps that give a gain boost. Passive pickups have high impedence and thus, a higher output.

Edit: Whoops, fixed a mistake.

 

[mmbongo]

My passive basses are as high or higher output than my active basses.