So, does this supposedly only work on guitar and/or piano with chords, but not as individual notes on the bass? If the guitar and/or piano are playing an F chord on the way from G to C, then it's okay for the bass to play an F, but not if they're playing a G7 chord on the way from G to C? I don't see why that would be.
Would pedaling the F on bass for the 3rd and 4th beats of the measure on the way from the G chord to the C chord somehow legitimize ("realize"?) the use of the F compared to just playing it once on the 4th beat of the measure?
It even seems to me that there are many times when it sounds okay, or even good, for the bass to be the only one playing a particular harmony note that stands out—particularly when it creates some tension that anticipates the next chord change.
What you were doing as said in the original post was that you were using
G / / / | G7 / / / | C...
or something to that effect. You played it as
Chords: G / / / | G7 / / / | C...
Bass: G / / / | F / / / | C...
This has a few problems:
- First of all, the seventh of a chord is generally (and I mean very generally) a tendency tone that wishes to resolve downwards by step. At the very least, it wants to resolve by step.
- When moving G-F that generally wants to keep moving by step, because the F, though a chord tone, is perceived more as a passing tone than harmonically functional.
- If the F were to function as a chord tone, then you have a G7 in third inversion, that is to say G7/F. This is a very tricky sound to work, and as a result is quite rare, which means that most ears aren't used to it, and can be considered dissonant when compunded by the previous list items. G7/F would never leap to resolve to the next chord, but instead would almost always resolve to a C/E.
G7-C is not the problem. The issue is simply the way you are choosing to express it. I think someone else mentioned a G-F-E-D-C walk to it, which would utilize the F-natural that defines the G7 (as opposed to a diatonic Maj7, which you would probably encounter very rarely in a bluegrass group). Your G-F-C move under G7-C isn't melodically functional (Yes I recognize that bass is not a melodic instrument generally, but in this instance it requires a certain ammount of melodic sensibility).
Bass motion of G-F-C is not a problem. The
progression of G-F-C would make this a very sensible, if not the most sensible choice of notes. This progression is a problem only if your ears don't accomodate it; nobody here will tell you it's a good or bad progression.
However, the problem arose with how the bass motion worked
within the chord progression. If you can express the G7 chord in a stylistically acceptable manner (e.g. don't enter a flurry of 64ths), then more power to you. The progression works. The question is one of execution, and you didn't execute it in a very "acceptable" manner. For example one thing that would be functional would be to (blasphemous as it is) arpeggiate. Most people wouldn't consider that idiomatic of bluegrass, but that would be one way that you could outline the chord. Of course, the ultimate thing you must answer to is the two flappy things on either side of your head; if it sounds good to you, then play it. For example one thing that would be functional would be to (blasphemous as it is) arpeggiate. Most people wouldn't consider that idiomatic of bluegrass, but that would be one way that you could outline the chord.