Alright, i understand the gist of modes, but i think i just confused myself.
Lets say youre playing a I-VI-V progression in C major, with NO modulations.
For the G chord, you decide to use the G Mixolydian scale.
Now, as far as my understanding goes, G Mixolydian contains the notes: G-A-B-C-D-E-F-G.
Im aware that the key of G has an F#, but as there are no modulations, how would this be considered be "modal" playing, as this Mixolydian scale uses the same notes as C Major (which is the point)?
I mean, it would make sense if you decided to use a mode starting on the I/i chord, but in this case, i dont see a difference?
Hopefully someone will understand what I mean?
Lets say youre playing a I-VI-V progression in C major, with NO modulations.
For the G chord, you decide to use the G Mixolydian scale.
Now, as far as my understanding goes, G Mixolydian contains the notes: G-A-B-C-D-E-F-G.
Im aware that the key of G has an F#, but as there are no modulations, how would this be considered be "modal" playing, as this Mixolydian scale uses the same notes as C Major (which is the point)?
I mean, it would make sense if you decided to use a mode starting on the I/i chord, but in this case, i dont see a difference?
Hopefully someone will understand what I mean?