Alright, i understand the gist of modes, but i think i just confused myself. Lets say youre playing a I-VI-V progression in C major, with NO modulations. For the G chord, you decide to use the G Mixolydian scale. Now, as far as my understanding goes, G Mixolydian contains the notes: G-A-B-C-D-E-F-G. Im aware that the key of G has an F#, but as there are no modulations, how would this be considered be "modal" playing, as this Mixolydian scale uses the same notes as C Major (which is the point)? I mean, it would make sense if you decided to use a mode starting on the I/i chord, but in this case, i dont see a difference? Hopefully someone will understand what I mean?