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For instance, USA MTD basses, if bought used, can usually be re-sold for near (if not greater than) the used purchase price.
This sentence has stuck in my brain like a thorn since I first read it, and this post is an attempt to shake it loose.
Being able to re-sell a bass you bought used for near (if not greater than) the asking price....wouldn't that be true of ANY used item you didn't massively overpay for? Why credit it specifically to MTD?
Or did I just learn that used USA MTD basses have an ever-escalating value, the more hands they pass through the more they are worth?
Jimmy, I can see where you're coming from on that.
Actually, being an MTD bass owner, I knew of their resale value. I also view a lot of the classified listings showing MTD basses for sale. So, I had a good idea of how those basses retained their value.
The purpose of this thread, for me, was to seek the knowledge and opinions of the TB community on other basses (make/model) and their respective resale value....those of which I didn't know about. I'm not active in buying and selling basses. But if I choose to do so in the future, I would like to be more knowledgeable in that area.
Right
to keep it short and simple
I think what you meant to say was "USA MTD basses, if bought new, can usually be re-sold for near (if not greater than) the new purchase price"
as you wrote it, buy used then sell used and the price remains similar, that is not a measure of a brand's relative "resale value", it's simply confirming you paid fair used market value and then sold it for fair used market value. It would be true of any bass, MTD or Carvin or Wal or First Act.