Here is a question I have pondered over the years. Why are P-basses more expensive than PJ basses? At almost any level of instrument, it seems like regular P-basses are more expensive, sometime considerably more than PJ basses by the same company, tier-level.
What could be the reason for this? You would think that it would be a lot cheaper to build a single pickup P than have to route and supply both a P-pickup and a Jazz pickup. What am I missing here?
What could be the reason for this? You would think that it would be a lot cheaper to build a single pickup P than have to route and supply both a P-pickup and a Jazz pickup. What am I missing here?