not to start another active/passive religion war, but I was wondering, checking a beautiful Fender Jazz bass custom shop equipped with an 18v onboard preamp, if the rich and robust sound, the impressive amount of harmonics, with no dead note, is something due to the presence of a preamp or not.
I have a very good Fender Custom Shop jazz bass, passive, and it sounds good but not so good as its active sibling.
It's not a volume thing, I know, it's more like an openness around the freqs
By the way the active jazz bass I was checking sounds a little more dull when I disengage the preamp.
So the question is: a preamp (onboard or outboard) could "steps out" some freqs that in passive mode are barely audible? or it's a matter of woods and building and pre is something related only to the volume?
Ciao
I have a very good Fender Custom Shop jazz bass, passive, and it sounds good but not so good as its active sibling.
It's not a volume thing, I know, it's more like an openness around the freqs
By the way the active jazz bass I was checking sounds a little more dull when I disengage the preamp.
So the question is: a preamp (onboard or outboard) could "steps out" some freqs that in passive mode are barely audible? or it's a matter of woods and building and pre is something related only to the volume?
Ciao