It would be pointless. You'd get a handful of nitpicky people screaming "uncontrolled test!" and hurling insults at anybody who got anything useful out of the experiment.
But possibly amusing...
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It would be pointless. You'd get a handful of nitpicky people screaming "uncontrolled test!" and hurling insults at anybody who got anything useful out of the experiment.
Pretty much. I'd like to see them do better. Bunch of whiners.It would be pointless. You'd get a handful of nitpicky people screaming "uncontrolled test!" and hurling insults at anybody who got anything useful out of the experiment.
It would be pointless. You'd get a handful of nitpicky people screaming "uncontrolled test!" and hurling insults at anybody who got anything useful out of the experiment.
I have a PJ set up in my P-Bass Special and to answer your question: No.
Is there technically and statistically a difference? Yes, sure. Tonally? No. Not to my ears. When I solo the neck P pickup and start jammin out some old Iron Maiden tunes it sure sounds a whole lot like Steve's sound to me.
I love my PJ set up.
Well, you can, but they're called superconductors and are the subject of a great deal of research!
Depends on the bass and the pickups.
My church's Ibanez SR400 PJ with the P pickup solo'd sounds nothing like my SX P bass.
+ a million. P/J basses, despite TB often claiming they're not even a legitimate bass, are GREAT basses. If you want to listen to a bunch of whiners, then avoid the P/J at all costs. If you want something that's the best of both worlds, get yourself a P/J bass and have fun.

The only problem with a P/J is that if you use the typical volume/volume wiring, you won't get a true P tone when you solo the neck pickup. I'll quote line6man since I'm lazy:
I know a girl who lost her virginity with a guy named PJ. Does that count?
Probably, but the only Fender P/J I've tried didn't sound like a P or a J, with either pickup solo'd.I assumed we were talking about equivalent basses. For example, two, passive MIM Fenders....1 a P only, the other a P/J with the P pickup soloed. The differences between the two would likely minimal and could possibly be attibuted to other factors besides the Jazz pickup and the extra volume pot. Even identical makes and models have some tonal variances between them, so two completely different models should not be expected to sound the same regardless of the pickup configuration. A Spector NS2 with the P pickup soloed sounds absolutely nothing like any Fender I've ever heard because it is a completely different bass (active, neck-thru, etc.), not because it is a P/J. You have to compare apples to apples.
Probably, but the only Fender P/J I've tried didn't sound like a P or a J, with either pickup solo'd.
Didn't sound good period, though. I think I just have bad luck with P/Js.
It's odd, it had a Jazz body and it had an active/passive switch. I tried it both active and passive, but I just could not get it to sound good.Was it the active one that Fender sells? The MIM Deluxe Active P-bass, I think it's called? If so, its not the best example of a P/J. The preamp on those is definitely sub-par and I don't like the Vintage Noiseless Jazz pickup either. I prefer really good passive pickups and no preamp in a P/J, but thats just me.
Depends on the bass and the pickups.
My church's Ibanez SR400 PJ with the P pickup solo'd sounds nothing like my SX P bass.
In my defense, he didn't say it had to be the same brand, same wood, etc...DUH!! They're different chunks of wood, different electronics, and different necks. That's no valid comparison.
John
