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Double Bass Figured Bass and Basso Continuo -what do WE do?

I first looked at (sightread with the intention of playing it more than once) Dietrich Becker's "Musikalische Frühlings-Früchte" in a modernized Urtext format last night. I asked the violinst (who is a local symphony's music librarian) If I could have a copy of the original basso continuo part without the figured bass removed (Im still a youngin' so she assumed I couldnt read figured bass amd gave me a part with the figured bass's numbers and symbols removed) and while she gave me the part I asked for she said: "It doesn't quite make a difference for instruments other than the harpsichord which uses it to play chords. You just play the written part."
Is this correct? Isnt there room for some simple improvisation based on the figured bass? (I've already read the article on Jerry Fuller's site but it seemed more relevant, with a few exceptions, to the harpsichord even though it was from the Viola da Gamba Society journal.)
Any help would be appreciated!
Thanks
 
I haven't played that much Baroque music, but in my limited experience, the improvisation is left up to the harpsichord or other chordal instrument (lute, guitar, harp, organ, etc.). The cello plays the written basso continuo line, and the double bass, if present, plays from the cello score, which of course comes out sounding an octave lower.
 
>> But, based on the inversion based on the numbers in the figure bass, couldn't you play the bass note of the inversion rather than the notated tonic?​
But by the definition of figured bass, the notated note already IS the bass note of the desired inversion.

Since the inversion of a chord is defined by its bass note, if the written line always comprised the root notes of the intended harmony, all the chords would be in root position (5 3), and there would be no need for figured bass.
 
>> But, based on the inversion based on the numbers in the figure bass, couldn't you play the bass note of the inversion rather than the notated tonic?​
But by the definition of figured bass, the notated note already IS the bass note of the desired inversion. Since the inversion of a chord is defined by its bass note, if the written line always comprised the root notes of the intended harmony, all the chords would be in root position (5 3), and there would be no need for figured bass.

I did not know that thanks! :)
 
Hi. I haven't played double bass since I was a kid, but I played in the continuo ensemble (baroque harp) for quite awhile in a baroque opera company. We didn't use double bass, but the gambists and cellists did definitely realize the figures somewhat. Obviously, more when they were the only accompaniment (eg, to a recitative), but also when working with chordal instrument. For example, embellishing the cadence was pretty much routine. It also depended on how thoroughly composed the bass line was to begin with. If it was just whole notes for measure upon measure, we had to really consider whether that was the intended rhythm, it usually was not (or so our music director concluded). It was just a matter of being tasteful and being aware of the overall texture and desired affect.

A great exercise we did just to get the continuo ensemble thinking together: one instrument would play a bass line, attempting to express some affect the best way their instrument could express it, and then toss it to another instrument and that person would have to "say" the same thing with their very different toolkit. We'd purposely go back and forth between melodic and chordal instruments. Some cellist would express something through a single, sustained note with all sorts of dynamic and tonal variation, and then I'd have to figure out how to say answer that. Very fun.
 

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