Well, I certainly won't argue that some people seem to hear and feel a difference.
I don't, partially because my bass involves several other things that are way more distracting - 24 frets per octave and 8 strings chief among them. But those things aside, I don't feel any playability differences between 32" and 34" - 32" was a matter of convenience because it allows me to use guitar strings for the highest four strings. Obviously the tension is different with the same strings and same tuning, but slightly heavier strings or a slightly higher tuning (or both) make this moot. For me.
My point is this: I won't deny there's a difference between 34 and 35 for many. But splitting the difference to 34.5 seems rather trivial, and further splitting the difference between 34.5 and 35 to arrive at 34.7? To me, it sounds like when people laminate like a 1/4" layer of wenge between a bubinga top and an ovangkol back, so they can have X attribute of one wood, plus Y attribute of another, and temper that with Z attribute of the third. (Warwick, I'm looking at you.)
But anyway, I was just curious what his thoughts were that led him to make that choice.