I started playing regularly and seriously only last year and I played an already fairly modern passive P+J bass (budget brand, early noughties), so I don't have experience with older guitars.
I think these two statements are true:
• Fully passive instruments have comparably low outputs (though significantly higher than they used to have half a century ago). So putting a phantom or battery-powered preamp in the guitar itself makes perfect sense. The signal is hotter, it has more headroom, interference induced noise has less effect on the signal.
• Bass amps used to have two inputs, one for passive instruments, and the other for active ones. The active input simply padded the signal before the onboard preamp. You could achieve the same result by plugging your active instrument in the passive input and turning down gain. The only time when you needed to use the active input was if your bass runs so hot that it overdrives the preamp even with the gain turned way down.
So far, so good. But I bought an active guitar last year and I was surprised by one thing: the volume in passive and active modes is exactly the same. I read that this is common with all modern active guitars. I can tell for a fact that the preamp is in use because active mode won't work if the battery is close to being dead, and tone controls only work in active mode. When tone controls are in the center position, it's impossible to hear the difference between active and passive mode.
Active signal is not hotter than passive. It's possible that the noise floor is lower and you get higher SNR in active mode, but interference induced noise is additive. It doesn't care how much (or how little) noise there was previously. If there's enough interference, it will cause noise.
What gives? The only two advantages I see running the bass in active mode is 1) tone control; 2) impedance matching with badly designed amp input stages. Theoretically, there might be a third advantage that when used in a noise-controlled studio, your bass will have a slightly lower noise floor, but I'm grasping for straws.
What am I missing?
I think these two statements are true:
• Fully passive instruments have comparably low outputs (though significantly higher than they used to have half a century ago). So putting a phantom or battery-powered preamp in the guitar itself makes perfect sense. The signal is hotter, it has more headroom, interference induced noise has less effect on the signal.
• Bass amps used to have two inputs, one for passive instruments, and the other for active ones. The active input simply padded the signal before the onboard preamp. You could achieve the same result by plugging your active instrument in the passive input and turning down gain. The only time when you needed to use the active input was if your bass runs so hot that it overdrives the preamp even with the gain turned way down.
So far, so good. But I bought an active guitar last year and I was surprised by one thing: the volume in passive and active modes is exactly the same. I read that this is common with all modern active guitars. I can tell for a fact that the preamp is in use because active mode won't work if the battery is close to being dead, and tone controls only work in active mode. When tone controls are in the center position, it's impossible to hear the difference between active and passive mode.
Active signal is not hotter than passive. It's possible that the noise floor is lower and you get higher SNR in active mode, but interference induced noise is additive. It doesn't care how much (or how little) noise there was previously. If there's enough interference, it will cause noise.
What gives? The only two advantages I see running the bass in active mode is 1) tone control; 2) impedance matching with badly designed amp input stages. Theoretically, there might be a third advantage that when used in a noise-controlled studio, your bass will have a slightly lower noise floor, but I'm grasping for straws.
What am I missing?