Yup, that seems to be the case.![]()
So you need to either deal with the weight of the CA-9 or hire a roadie.
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Yup, that seems to be the case.![]()
If room acoustics and your EQ curve didn't change, then you have a valid observation.
It should be mentioned that a better test would be to alternate between both setups at the same gig. It's possible that on the recent gig your bandmates were using different EQ curves that allowed your bass to sit in the mix a little better.
So you need to either deal with the weight of the CA-9 or hire a roadie.![]()
I will do this exact thing tomorrow as I am playing that same bar again tomorrow night. I planned on doing UL502 alone for the first set, UL502 into CA-9 for the second set, and back to the UL502 alone for the third set.
Wanna make 5 bucks?![]()
Louder would give you more fullness (see "equal loudness").
Not "fuller" or "fatter".This statement doesn't fit in with my most recent experience though, so maybe you can help me understand whats up. At a club I've played a number of times just using my UL502 at gig level, it has sounded very good for the most part. Most recently, I played this same venue adding the CA-9 into the equation, but while my overall volume was a touch lower than usual, my tone seemed overall fuller. Am I misunderstanding something occurring here?
you haven't taken a close enough look or learned enough of the physics behind it to reach the same conclusions I have or ... I believe science teaches us one thing ...
...
Is it possible that lead sleds perform better than switching amps when voltage is lower than expected?
Where is this science? If you can't explain it, can you provide references?
Science doesn't teach anyone anything if it is not presented properly.
That just is not true, it would make the signal louder. When you turn the amp up, the mids and highs get louder as well, and then you sound "too loud"Not "fuller" or "fatter".
AGAIN I will ask you what the percentage increase in perceived LF response (relative to the rest of the signal) is between say 100db and 102db?
and the PLX amps don't have bass cut (aside from the selectable 30 or 50 Hz high-pass filters).
This statement doesn't fit in with my most recent experience though, so maybe you can help me understand whats up. At a club I've played a number of times just using my UL502 at gig level, it has sounded very good for the most part. Most recently, I played this same venue adding the CA-9 into the equation, but while my overall volume was a touch lower than usual, my tone seemed overall fuller. Am I misunderstanding something occurring here?
Actually, it is true. One of my posts that you perhaps didn't read links to an explanation of equal-loudness contours.
This is a psychoacoustic phenomenon, not one that occurs in electronics. You turn up the volume by some amount, and the mids get louder while the lows and upper highs also get louder, but disproportionately so.
This phenomenon is why many stereo systems have a "loudness" switch that boosts the lows and highs to somewhat resemble the human auditory system's frequency response at higher sound pressure levels.
If you're going to reject this knowledge too, then you're bucking against a great deal of scientific discovery.
If you want fuller bass or whatever without loudness, then you have to EQ, and your choice of power amp will not help you there as a general rule they are extremely flat. Even the CA amps don't have bass boost, and the PLX amps don't have bass cut (aside from the selectable 30 or 50 Hz high-pass filters).
I haven't even hinted at rejecting it. I have understood it for many years and have read a lot about it.
I'm asking you to quantify it at the tiny differences in loudness that you are claiming spoil all of our listening tests, but you've again ignored my direct question.
Fuller bass without EQ is exactly what some people hear when switching from a PLX to a CA. It is the very core of the discussion.
Okay, maybe you're not rejecting it, but you're pretending it doesn't exist.
You can quantify the phenomenon yourself at the article I cited. Compare a 6.7 dB difference in gain, such as the difference between a PLX and a CA9.
Fuller bass without EQ = louder, unless the "fuller bass" is imagined.
But you're pretending we're stupid. We're not out here A/Bing with both amps "on 4" (at least I'm not). We accept that gain matching is important. We match listening levels as closely as we can by ear when A/Bing. I feel safe in saying that I was within 2db during any A/B test I've ever performed.
So what is the F-M effect of a 2db gain increase when you're already well along the curve? And could that possibly be responsible for an audible difference in "fullness"?
The actual way these tests typcially go down is that we play with our band. If we turned up, we'd be deemed "too loud" by our bandmates.
How far below?
Maybe the problem for me all along was that the 1602 only puts out the 350-odd watts that Bink's test shows it is capable of at 20hz. And then maybe I'd have better results with a PLX that had more headroom?
I had no desire to be any louder, just wanted more fullness.